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PMHNP ANCC Exam questions with 100% correct answers

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Descriptive Vividness The researcher describes the data gathering process in sufficient detail that the reader can personally experience it. The data collected, often in the form of personal statements, should be quoted directly and extensively, because this is the raw data from the study. Methodological Congruence The researcher presents the philosophical and methodological approach used and cites references to support their approach. The subjects, sampling method, data-gathering and data-analysis strategies, and processes for informed consent are clearly and concisely described. Theoretical Conectedness Any theory developed from the study is clearly stated, logically consistent, reflective of the data, and in accord with other available knowledge. Analytical Precision Is not concerned with statistics and instruments. If refers to the decision-making process by which the researchers synthesize concrete data (words of the subjects) into an abstract that clarifies the meaning and the importance of the study. The last of the 5 criteria is Heuristic Relevance - The researcher clarifies the significance of the study, its applicability to public health or community nursing, and its likely influence o the future research. Phenelzine An MAOI that patients with atypical depression respond particularly well to. Atomoxetine A norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor approved for the treatment of ADHD. Loxapine A typical, tetracyclic antipsychotic with antidepressant properties. Its active metabolite is amoxapine, which is a secondary amine tricyclic antidepressant. HITECH Implementation of EHR for information exchanges and improving population health. This was done by Obama and the ARRA. Suppression The intentional or conscious exclusion of painful or disturbing thoughts or emotions from awareness. A healthy defense mechanism because the client channels conflicting energies into growth-promoting activities. Medications that can induce depression beta blockers, steroids, interferon, Accutane, benzodiazepines, progesterone, some antivirals, and antineoplasmics. Medications that can induce mania Steroids, Isoniazid, antidepressants (in people who already have bipolar disorder), and Antabuse. Medigap Insurance Policies Private insurance policies purchased by elderly individuals to cover some or all of their medical expenses not paid for by Medicare. Medicare Advantage Plan Formerly Medicare + Choice, this created regional Preferred Provider Organizations (PPOs) and gave Medicare enrollees the option of enrolling in private insurance plans. Medicare + Choice Was a part of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 that significantly increase the number of managed care insurance plans available to recipients. This was replaced with the Medicare Advantage Plan in 200. List of the Second Generation (atypical) Antipsychotics (9) Clozaril (clozapine), Zyprexa (olanzapine), Latuda (lurasidone), ziprasidone, Risperdal (risperidone), Invega Sustenna (palperidone), Fanapt (iloperidone), Seroquel (quetiapine), Saphris (asenapine), List of First Generation (typical) Antipsychotics (10) Haldol (haloperidol), Prolixin (fluphenazine), Navane (thiothixene), Thorazine (chlorpromazine), Loxitane (loxapine), Mellaril (thioridazine), Trilafon (perphenazine), Orap (pimozide), Solian amisulpride), Stellazine (trifluoperazine) List the 6 common benzodiazepines in order from shortest to longest half-life Xanax (alprazolam): 6-10 hrs Serax (oxazepam): 8 hrs Ativan (lorazepam): 12-18 hrs Klonopin (clonazepam): 30-40 hrs Valium (diazepam): 100 hrs Librium (chlordiazepoxide): 36-200 hrs List of SNRIs (6) Cymbalta (duloxetine), Pristiq (desvenlafaxine), Effexor (venlafaxine), Fetzima (levomilnacipran), Savella (milnacipran), Strattera (atomoxetine) Action of Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs) They target serotonin, norepinephrine, and histamine-1 receptors List the Tricyclic Antidepressants (9) Pamelor (nortriptyline), Elavil (amitriptyline), amoxapine (no branded), Anafranil (clomipramine), Norpramin (desipramine), Tofranil (imipramine), Vivactil (protriptyline), Sinequan/Silenor (doxepin), Surmontil (trimipramine) FINISH acronym for SSRI withdrawal Flu-like symptoms Irritability Nausea Imbalance/instability/incoordination/dizzy (motor) Sensory disturbances Headache, hyperarousal (anxiety/agitation) Signs of NMS (Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome) Initial Symptoms: altered sensorium, hyperreflexia, fever Then signs of autonomic instability: extreme muscle rigidity, hypotension, tachycardia, diaphoresis, tachypnea, hyperthermia, coma, death. Check for increased WBCs (leukocytosis)/LFTs/CPK Signs of Lithium toxicity Confusion, diplopia, nausea/diarrhea, ataxia, lethargy, fatigue, clumsiness, weakness, muscle cramping, severe tremor, blurred vision, nystagmus, increased DTRs, altered mental status, cardiac dysrhythmias Signs of Serotonin Snydrome agitation, restlessness, rapid heart rate, blood pressure elevation, headache, sweating, shivering, goose bumps, myoclonic jerking and loss of coordination, confusion, fevers, unconsciousness, seizures Medications that can increase lithium level NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors (-prils), ARBs (-sartans), tetracyclines, metronidazole Medications that can decrease lithium level potassium-sparing diuretics, thiazide diuretics, theophylline Clozaril - monitoring considerations Monitor ANC (absolute neutrophil count); pt needs an ANC of at least 1500 to start clozaril therapy; watch for Benign Ethnic Neutropenia (BED); Monitor ANC weekly x6 months, every 2 weeks x6 months, then monthly if ANC is at least 1500. Substances that can cause a false + drug test for PCP & methadone Niquil, OTC cough meds Substances that can cause a false + drug test for heroin & morphine rifampin, fluoroquniolones Substances that can cause a false + drug test for cocaine NSAIDs, amoxicillin, most antibiotics Substances that can cause a false + drug test for amphetamines Prozac, Wellbutrin, Trazodone, Nefazodone, Sudafed, OTC decongestants. Schizophrenia Prevalence: Non-twin siblings of a schizophrenic parent Dizygotic twins of a schizophrenic parent Monozygotic twins of a schizophrenic parent 8% 12% 47% Birth defects caused by benzodiazepines Cleft palate, floppy baby syndrome Birth defects caused by carbamazepine Neural tube defects Birth defects caused by depakote Neural tube defects (spina bifida), cleft palate, atrial-septal defects, long-term developmental deficits CYP450 Inhibitors bupropion, clomipramine, cimetidine, clarithromycin, fluoroquinolone, grapefruit, ketoconazole, nefazodone, SSRIs CYP450 Inducers carbamazepine, nicotine, hypericum (St. John's wort), phenytoin, phenobarbital Normals lab value for AST (aspartate aminotransferase) 5-40 Normal lab value for ALT (alanine aminotransferase) 5-35 Normal lab value for Alkaline Phosphastase 44-147; male be increased in gallbladder disease & with bone injury /rapid bone growth Creatine Kinase (normal range) <240. Measures muscle injury (heart, brain, and skeletal). Increased in MI (CK-MO), myositis, NMS BUN (normal range) 10-20. Creatinine 0.4-0.8 or less than 1.5 Normal GFR >90 mL/min. If a patient is on psychotropics, as long as their GRF is >60, no dose adjustments need to be made. What is the best measure of kidney function? GFR (glomerular filtration rate) Normal Plate Count 140,000-340,000 Normal hemoglobin value for males and females Males: 13.5-18 Females: 12.5-14 Normal MCV (mean corpuscular volume) value 78-100 Normal TSH Range 0.4-4 Normal Free T4 range 10-27 Substances that can cause a false + drug test for codeine poppy seeds Substances that can cause a false + drug test for benzodiazepines Zoloft Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) normal range 10-38 Drug Category A and examples Controlled studies show no risk Vitamins within RDA, insulin, thyroxine Drug Category B and examples No evidence of risk in humans Buspirone, zolpidem, clozapine, lurasidone Beta-lactam antimicrobials (PCNs, cephalosporins, select macrocodes,azithromycin, erythromycin), acetaminophen, ibuprofen (1st & 2nd trimesters) Drug Category C and examples Risk cannot be ruled out bupropion, lamotrigine, SSRIs (except paroxetine), TCAs, duloxetine, mirtazapine, trazodone, venlafaxine, aripiprazole, Haldol, ziprasidone, risperidone Drug Category D and examples Positive evidence of risk paroxetine, valproate, carbamazepine, lithium alprazolam, chlordiazepoxide, clonazepam, diazepam, lorazepam, oxazepam ACE Inhibitors (-prils), ARBs (-sartans), ibuprofen (3rd trimester), tetracyclines Drug Category X and examples Absolutely Contraindicated in pregnancy Accutane, misoprostol, thalidomide, flurazepam, temazepam, triazolam Types of inferential statistics p-value, Pearson's r correlation, t-test,ANOVA T-test Compares whether the means of two groups are statistically different

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PMHNP ANCC Review Questions with
verified correct answers
The purpose of the American Nurses Association's Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing:
Scope and Standards of Practice is to
a. Define the role and actions for the NP
b. Establish the legal authority for the prescription of psychotropic medications
c. Define the legal statutes of the role of the PMHNP
d. Define the differences between the physician role and the NP role - answer A. The ANAs
Psych-Mental Health Nursing Scope and Standards of Practice defines the role and actions of
the nurse practitioner.


D. Information reduces incidence of disease. - answer Primary prevention care practices are an
essential aspect of the PMHNP role. Which of the following is the best example of a primary
prevention care strategy for community behavioral health?
a. Aftercare program for chronically mentally ill clients recently discharged from the hospital
b. Court-ordered counseling for abusive parents
c. 24-hour crisis hotlines
d. Parenting skills classes for pregnant adolescents


The trend in legal rulings on cases involving mental illness over the past 25 years has been to
a. Encourage juries to find defendants not guilty by reason of insanity
b. Protect the person's freedoms or rights when he or she is committed to a mental hospital
c. Place increasing trust in mental health professionals to make good and ethical decisions
d. Decrease the "red tape" associated with commitments so that commitments are faster and
easier - answer B. Identifies the trend of ensuring the protection of individual civil liberties for
psychiatric clients.

,Mr. Smithers, an involuntarily hospitalized patient experiencing psychotic symptoms, refuses to
take any of his ordered medication because he believes "Jesus Christ told me I am the prophet
and must fast for a year." Your actions should be based on your knowledge of which of the
following?
a. Psychiatric clients cannot refuse treatment
b. Psychiatric clients do not always know what is good for them
c. Psychiatric clients can refuse treatment
d. Psychiatric clients cannot be trusted to make good healthcare decisions and, therefore, the
nurse's best clinical judgment should guide actions - answer C. As with any client, psychiatric
clients can refuse treatment unless a legal process resulting in involuntary commitment or
mandatory court order for treatment has been obtained.


Which of the following statements best reflects the difference between the nurse-client (N-C)
relationship and a social relationship?
a. In the N-C relationship, the primary focus is on the client and the client's needs.
b. Goals in the N-C relationship are deliberately left vague and unspoken so that the client can
work on any issue.
c. In the N-C relationship, the nurse is solely responsible for making the relationship work.
d. In the N-C relationship, there is no place for social interaction. - answer A. Social relationships
are mutual interpersonal relationships in which the needs of both parties are addressed. The N-
C relationship is most concerned with meeting the needs of the client.


A community has an unusually high incidence of depression and drug use among the teenage
population. The public health nurses decide to address this problem, in part, by modifying the
environment and strengthening the capacities of families to prevent the development of new
cases of depression and drug use. What is this is an example of?
a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Protective factorial prevention - answer A. This action focuses on interventions designed to
reduce the incidence of new cases of disease.

,Mrs. Kemp is voluntarily admitted to the hospital. After 24 hours, she states she wishes to leave
because "this place can't help me." The best nursing action that reflects the legal right of this
client is
a. Discharge the client
b. Explain that the client cannot leave until you can complete further assessment
c. Allow the client to leave but have her sign forms stating she is leaving against medical advice
d. Immediately start the paperwork to commit the client and to allow you to treat her against
her wishes - answer B. Almost every state allows for a brief for a period detainment to assess a
client for dangerousness to self or others before allowing the client to leave a hospital setting,
even if the admission was voluntary.


In forming a therapeutic relationship with clients, the PMHNP must consider developing many
characteristics that are known to be helpful in relationship-building. Which of the following is an
essential part of building a therapeutic relationship?
a. Collecting a family history
b. Like-mindedness
c. Authenticity
d. Accuracy in assessment - answer C. Authenticity. Being genuine, honest, and respectful are
essential elements in establishing a working relationship with any client. Like-mindedness is not
a part of the therapeutic relationship. Although an important aspect of the PMHNP role,
collecting a family history and accuracy in assessment does not in and of itself facilitate
relationship building.


According to the DSM-5, which of the following is true? (Ch. 3)
a. A mental disorder is equivalent to the need for treatment.
b. Diagnostic criteria are used to inform clinical judgment.
c. Socially deviant behavior is considered a mental disorder.
d. A culturally expected response to a stressor is not a mental disorder. - answer D. All DSM-5
disorders need to be made taking a person's culture into account. A cultural expression of a
response to grief, loss, or stress is not considered a DSM-5 diagnosis.

, Mrs. French has been in individual therapy for 3 months. She has shown much growth and
improvement in her functioning and insight and is to discontinue services within the next few
weeks. In the next session, after you discuss service termination, she suddenly begins to
demonstrate the original symptoms that had brought her to treatment initially. She is now
hesitant to discharge, wants to continue services, and is displaying an increase in regressive
defense mechanisms. What is the best explanation for Ms. French's behavior?
a. An exacerbation of her symptoms related to stress
b. The normal cyclic nature of chronic mental health symptoms
c. A sign of normal resistance to termination seen in the termination phase of therapy
d. A sign of pathological attachment to the therapist that must be addressed - answer C. Clients
frequently display resistance and regression at the termination of a meaningful therapeutic
process. The PMHNP is responsible for planning an effective termination and monitoring clients
during the termination period.


A client is displaying low self-esteem, poor self-control, self-doubt, and a high level of
dependency. These behaviors indicate developmental failure of which of the following stages of
development:
a. Infancy
b. Early childhood
c. Late childhood
d. School age - answer B. These signs indicate developmental failure of early childhood.


Mr. Thompson has been forgetful lately, for example, forgetting where he has placed his keys or
what time appointments are scheduled, and he has stated that he thinks these are just random
behaviors that have no particular meaning. Which Freudian-based psychodynamic principle
assumes that all behavior and actions are purposeful?
a. Pleasure principle
b. Psychic determinism principle
c. Reality principle
d. Unconsciousness principle - answer B. The psychic determinism principle states that all
behavior has purpose and meaning, often unconscious in nature, and that no behaviors occur
randomly or by coincidence.
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