Test Bank For Radiographic Pathology for Technologists 8th Edition Kowalczyk Chapter 1-12 | Latest Guide

Test Bank For Radiographic Pathology for Technologists 8th Edition Kowalczyk Chapter 1-12 | Latest Guide . Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The sequence of events producing cellular changes following injury best defines: a. manifestations. b. pathogenesis. c. sign. d. symptom. ANS: B REF: p. 2 2. An abnormal disturbance of the function and structure of the human body following injury refers to: a. disease. b. etiology. c. manifestations. d. pathogenesis. ANS: A REF: p. 2 3. The study of the cause of disease is termed: a. disease. b. etiology. c. pathogenesis. d. prognosis. ANS: B REF: p. 2 4. Common agents that cause disease include: 1. bacteria. 2. chemicals. 3. heat. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D REF: p. 2 5. A syndrome is best defined as: a. a genetic abnormality of a single protein. b. an adverse response to medical treatment. c. the patient’s perception of the disease. d. signs and symptoms that characterize a specific abnormal disturbance. ANS: D REF: p. 2 6. An adverse response to medical treatment itself is termed: a. autoimmune. b. iatrogenic. c. idiopathic. d. nosocomial. ANS: B REF: p. 3 7. Prognosis refers to: a. diseases usually having a quick onset. b. the name of the particular disease. c. the predicted course and outcome of the disease. d. the structure of cells or tissue. ANS: C REF: p. 3 8. Diseases that generally require a decrease in the exposure technique are considered: a. destructive. b. lytic. c. subtractive. d. all of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 3 9. The investigation of disease occurring in large groups best defines: a. epidemiology. b. incidence. c. prevalence. d. all of the above. ANS: A REF: p. 3 10. Data regarding the number of deaths caused by a particular disease averaged over a population are collected and reported by the: a. American College of Radiology. b. Centers for Disease Control. c. Food and Drug Administration. d. National Center for Health Statistics. ANS: D REF: p. 2 11. Which of the following are leading causes of death in the United States for adults aged 45 years and greater? 1. Heart disease 2. Malignant neoplasm 3. Polycystic kidney disease a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A REF: p. 4 12. In 2010, health spending accounted for approximately _____% of the U.S. gross domestic product. a. 12 b. 17 c. 21 d. 33 ANS: B REF: p. 7 13. Each cell in the human body, except the reproductive cells, contains _____ pairs of autosomal chromosomes and _____ sex chromosomes. a. 11; 1 b. 11; 2 c. 22; 1 d. 22; 2 ANS: D REF: p. 8 14. The types of gene maps that grew out of the identification of DNA sequences include _____ maps. 1. genetic 2. SNP 3. physical a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B REF: p. 8 15. The identification of common DNA pattern sequences and common patterns of genetic variations of single DNA bases resulted in: a. the Genome Project. b. genetic linkage maps. c. haplotype mapping. d. physical mapping. ANS: C REF: p. 8 16. Diseases that are present at birth from genetic or environmental factors are classified as: a. congenital. b. degenerative. c. genetic. d. metabolic. ANS: A REF: p. 10 17. A genetic disorder caused by an abnormality on one of the 22 nonsex chromosomes is considered: a. autosomal. b. dominant. c. recessive. d. sex linked. ANS: A REF: p. 11 18. A protein coat surrounding a genome of either RNA or DNA without an organized cellular structure best describes which type of microorganism? a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Virus d. All of the above ANS: C REF: p. 11 19. The ease with which a pathogenic organism can overcome the body’s defenses best describes: a. etiology. b. infection. c. pathogenesis. d. virulence. ANS: D REF: p. 12 20. Diseases caused by the disturbance of normal physiologic function are classified as: a. degenerative. b. metabolic. c. neoplastic. d. traumatic. ANS: B REF: p. 13 21. The lymph node into which the primary neoplasm drains during metastasis is termed the _____ node. a. primary b. sentinel c. metastatic d. neoplastic ANS: B REF: p. 14 22. The spread of cancerous cells into surrounding tissue by virtue of the close proximity best describes: a. lymphatic spread. b. hematogenous spread. c. invasion. d. oncogenesis. ANS: C REF: p. 16 23. Cancer originating in epithelial tissue is termed: a. carcinoma. b. leukemia. c. lymphoma. d. sarcoma. ANS: A REF: p. 16 24. In classification of a tumor using the TNM system, the T refers to the: a. size of the primary tumor. b. lymph node involvement. c. distant metastasis. d. histologic grading of the primary tumor. ANS: A REF: p. 16 25. Which of the following imaging modalities are used in the staging of neoplastic tumors? 1. CT 2. PET 3. MRI a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D REF: p. 16 26. In the treatment of neoplastic disease, interferons and interleukins are associated with: a. chemotherapy. b. radiation therapy. c. hormone therapy. d. immunotherapy. ANS: D REF: p. 16 MATCHING Altered Cell Biology Directions: Match the type of altered cell biology with the correct description. a. A generalized decrease in cell size b. A generalized increase in cell size c. An increase in the number of cells in tissue as a result of excessive proliferation d. Conversion of one cell type into another cell type e. Abnormal changes of mature cells 1. Hypertrophy 2. Atrophy 3. Metaplasia 4. Hyperplasia 5. Dysplasia 1. ANS: B REF: p. 9 2. ANS: A REF: p. 9 3. ANS: D REF: p. 10 4. ANS: C REF: p. 9 5. ANS: E REF: p. 10 TRUE/FALSE 1. A tumor consisting of differentiated cells has a higher probability for malignancy. ANS: F REF: p. 14 2. A histologic evaluation of a primary cancer that is graded as an “I” is considered well differentiated. ANS: T REF: p. 16 Chapter 2: Skeletal System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which primary bone tumor should be investigated with the utilization of CT? a. Osteosarcoma b. Osteoid osteoma c. Chondrosarcoma d. Ewing sarcoma ANS: B REF: p. 48 2. A patient presents to his physician with anterior shoulder pain for several months. He has had no recent injury and there is no relief with NSAIDs, ice, heat, and gentle range-of-motion exercises. Radiographs of the shoulder demonstrate small microcalcifications of the subacromial space. What is the differential diagnosis? a. Rotator cuff tear b. Labral tear c. Calcific tendinitis d. Anterior shoulder dislocation ANS: C REF: p. 39 3. Which of the following characteristics does NOT assist in the differentiation between a primary metastatic bone lesion as compared to a secondary metastatic bone lesion? a. Soft tissue mass b. Periosteal reaction c. Length of lesion d. Calcification of blood vessels ANS: D REF: p. 54 4. What skeletal pathology presents radiographically with a “soap bubble” appearance? a. Giant cell tumor b. Ewing sarcoma c. Osteoid osteoma d. Osteoblastoma ANS: A REF: p. 50 5. Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change? a. Increase b. Decrease c. No change ANS: A REF: p. 27 6. Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change? a. Increase b. Decrease c. No change ANS: C REF: p. 39 7. Which neoplasm involves a nidus? a. Osteoid osteoma b. Osteoblastoma c. Osteosarcoma d. Paget disease ANS: A REF: p. 48 8. Which disease is congenital? a. Pott disease b. Osteoporosis c. Paget disease d. Osteogenesis imperfecta ANS: D REF: p. 24 9. Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral: a. pedicle. b. lamina. c. spinous process. d. pars interarticularis. ANS: D REF: p. 42 10. Diploë is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure? a. Femur b. Humerus c. Sternum d. Skull ANS: D REF: p. 20 11. A 15-year-old male patient presents for a right knee series after sustaining a varus injury while playing football. AP, lateral, and both oblique radiographs of the knee demonstrate an avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). What additional imaging modality would be best utilized in the diagnosis for this patient? a. CT b. Knee arthrography c. MRI d. Nuclear medicine ANS: C REF: p. 23 12. Heberden nodes and Bouchard nodes are associated with what skeletal pathology? a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteoarthritis c. Paget disease d. Pott disease ANS: B REF: p. 38 13. What skeletal pathology could be a contributing factor for a cervical rib? a. Scoliosis b. Spina bifida c. Spondylolisthesis d. Transitional vertebrae ANS: D REF: p. 30 14. Which anatomic structure is NOT a common area for metastasis? a. Pelvis b. Carpals c. Skull d. Bony thorax ANS: B REF: p. 53 15. “Brittle bone” disease is also known as: a. achondroplasia. b. DDH. c. osteogenesis imperfecta. d. osteopetrosis. ANS: C REF: p. 24 16. Congenital clubfoot is also known as: a. DDH. b. syndactyly. c. fibrous dysplasia. d. talipes. ANS: D REF: p. 28 17. The most common form of arthritis is: a. osteoarthritis. b. gouty arthritis. c. psoriatic arthritis. d. rheumatoid arthritis. ANS: A REF: p. 37 18. Marie-Strümpell disease or “bamboo spine” is a symptom of the pathology known as: a. ankylosing spondylitis. b. spondylolisthesis. c. spina bifida. d. scoliosis. ANS: A REF: p. 37 19. The forward slippage of one vertebra on another describes the pathology: a. spondylitis. b. spondylolisthesis. c. spondylolysis. d. spina bifida. ANS: B REF: p. 40 20. What type of arthritis has tophi associated with it? a. Osteoarthritis b. Gouty arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Rheumatoid arthritis ANS: B REF: p. 39 21. What imaging modality demonstrates both simultaneous evaluation of bone and soft tissues with quantitative metabolic data of osteosarcomas? a. CT b. Nuclear medicine bone scan c. Sonography d. PET scan ANS: D REF: p. 51 22. Tuberculosis of the spine is commonly referred to as: a. Kienbock disease. b. Reiter syndrome. c. Apert syndrome. d. Pott disease. ANS: D REF: p. 33 23. The imaging modality that would best demonstrate osteomyelitis is: a. nuclear medicine. b. radiography. c. CT. d. sonography. ANS: A REF: p. 32 24. One of the most common areas for metastasis for osteosarcomas is to the: a. brain. b. breast. c. lung. d. colon. ANS: C REF: p. 51 25. A 30-year-old male presents with swelling and redness on his left knee. He states that he lays carpet and rarely wears knee pads. The orthopedic surgeon decides to aspirate the swollen area and inject it with a corticosteroid. What would be the differential diagnosis? a. Calcific tendinitis b. Tenosynovitis c. Ganglion cyst d. Prepatellar bursitis ANS: D REF: p. 34 26. A malignant tumor composed of atypical cartilage is known as: a. chondrosarcoma. b. osteosarcoma. c. enchondroma. d. osteoid osteoma. ANS: A REF: p. 53 27. What skeletal pathology involves cysts in the metaphysis of long bones in individuals younger than 20 years of age and consists of numerous blood-filled arteriovenous communications? a. Unicameral bone cyst b. Aneurysmal bone cyst c. Ganglion cyst d. Osteoid osteoma ANS: B REF: p. 48 28. What type of aggressive bone-forming neoplasm that is most often located in the bone marrow gives the radiographic appearance of a sunray or sunburst? a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteosarcoma c. Chondrosarcoma d. Multiple myeloma ANS: B REF: p. 24 29. Which syndrome may involve craniosynostosis and syndactyly? a. Pott syndrome b. Reiter syndrome c. Kienbock syndrome d. Alpert syndrome ANS: D REF: p. 50 30. Which of the following congenital skeletal pathologies involves failure of formation of the cranial vault and is not conducive for life? a. Anencephaly b. Craniosynostosis c. Encephalopathy d. Osteomyelitis ANS: A REF: p. 28 31. What imaging modality/ies would demonstrate developmental dysplasia of the hip? 1. CT 2. MRI 3. Radiography 4. Sonography a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3