Test Bank for Clinical Immunology and Serology a Laboratory Perspective 4th Edition By Christine Dorresteyn Stevens Linda E. miller | Chapter 1-24 | Complete Guide (Newest Version)

Test Bank for Clinical Immunology and Serology a Laboratory Perspective 4th Edition By Christine Dorresteyn Stevens Linda E. miller | Chapter 1-24 | Complete Guide (Newest Version). Eosinophils are involved in the immune response against: A. viruses. B. intracellular bacteria. C. parasites that cannot be phagocytized. D. extracellular bacteria. ANS: C 2. Which of the following are components of both innate and adaptive immune responses? A. Immunoglobulins B. T helper cells C. Macrophages D. B cells ANS: C 3. The process by which leukocytes are attracted to a specific area by chemical messengers is called: A. diapedesis. B. degranulation. C. chemotaxis. D. opsonization. ANS: C 4. Which of the following is a characteristic of natural killer cells? A. They mature in the thymus. B. They are smaller than B and T cells. C. They are a type of lymphocyte. D. They are part of the adaptive immune system. ANS: C 5. Which of the following best describes diapedesis? A. Movement toward increasing concentrations of a cytokine B. Attachment of immunoglobulin to target cells C. Movement through blood vessel walls as cells exit the circulation D. Engulfment of target cells ANS: C 6. The most effective phagocytic and antigen-presenting cell is the: A. neutrophil. B. monocyte. C. dendritic cell. D. macrophage. ANS: C 7. Which of the following is characteristic of natural immunity? A. It involves memory. B. T lymphocytes play a major role. C. It involves specificity. D. Mechanisms are always present and fully functional. ANS: D 8. All of the following cells are considered part of natural immunity EXCEPT: A. eosinophils. B. B lymphocytes. C. monocytes. D. neutrophils. ANS: B 9. Where does the specific immune response to a foreign antigen mainly occur? A. Lymph nodes B. Blood C. Bone marrow D. Skin ANS: A 10. Which white cell in the peripheral blood migrates into tissue to become a macrophage? A. Eosinophil B. Basophil C. Neutrophil D. Monocyte ANS: D 11. A white blood cell that is 16 to 18 micrometers in diameter, has a horseshoe-shaped nucleus, and is capable of phagocytosis is a: A. neutrophil. B. eosinophil. C. basophil. D. monocyte. ANS: D 12. Pasteur's discovery that older bacterial cultures would not cause disease in chickens but would protect them from subsequent infection with more virulent strains is an example of: A. attenuated vaccine. B. natural immunity. C. passive immunity. D. cross-immunity. ANS: A 13. Antibodies are secreted by: A. plasma cells. B. B cells. C. T cells. D. dendritic cells. ANS: A 14. Which of the following is characteristic of mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue? A. It is one of the primary lymphoid organs. B. It clears pathogens from the bloodstream. C. It includes the tonsils and the appendix. D. It includes the liver and spleen. ANS: C 15. Acquired (adaptive) immunity can be characterized as: A. nonspecifically activated. B. immediately responsive. C. neutrophil dependent. D. involving memory. ANS: D 16. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neutrophils? A. Congregate in the marginating pool in blood vessels B. Capable of diapedesis C. Granules that become bright orange with Wright stain D. Segmented nucleus ANS: C 17. The function of NK cells is to: A. produce antibody. B. phagocytize bacteria. C. present antigen to T cells. D. kill target cells such as tumor and virally infected cells. ANS: D 18. All of the following are involved in adaptive immunity EXCEPT: A. memory. B. lymphocytes. C. specificity. D. neutrophils. ANS: D 19. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a lymph node? A. Filters interstitial fluid draining from tissues B. Colonized with T and B cells C. Between 1 and 25 mm in size D. Considered a primary or central lymphoid organ ANS: D 20. All of the following are considered part of natural immunity EXCEPT: A. eosinophils. B. lymphocytes. C. acute-phase reactants. D. neutrophils. ANS: B 21. Macrophages that migrate to the liver are called: A. alveolar macrophages. B. histiocytes. C. microglial cells. D. Kupffer cells. ANS: D 22. Innate immunity can be characterized as: A. specific. B. slow to respond. C. dependent upon neutrophils and macrophages. D. involving memory. ANS: C 23. The ability to resist infection through normally present body functions best characterizes: A. autoimmunity. B. natural immunity. C. acquired immunity. D. alloimmunity. ANS: B 24. Which type of cell has a diameter between 10 and 15 micrometers, has a multi-lobed nucleus, and usually comprises more than 50% of circulating leukocytes? A. Neutrophil B. Lymphocyte C. Basophil D. Monocyte ANS: A 25. Which of the following is NOT a component or characteristic of natural (innate) immunity? A. Repeated exposure to a pathogen does not change the response. B. The response involves acute-phase reactants. C. The response involves phagocytosis. D. The response involves antibodies. ANS: D 26. T cells are mainly concentrated in which region of the lymph nodes? A. Primary follicles B. Secondary follicles C. Paracortex D. Medulla ANS: C 27. A primary site of antigen trapping and presentation to immune cells is the: A. spleen. B. thymus. C. bone marrow. D. brain. ANS: A 28. Hematopoietic stem cells are located in the: A. lymph nodes. B. spleen. C. bone marrow. D. thymus. ANS: C 29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic or function of the spleen? A. Removes old red blood cells from the circulation B. Filters infectious agents and foreign matter from the blood C. Less than 25 mm in size D. Is considered a secondary lymphoid organ ANS: C 30. T cells mature in the: A. bone marrow. B. thymus. C. lymph nodes. D. spleen. ANS: B 31. Primary lymphoid organs include which of the following? A. Spleen B. Tonsils C. Thymus D. Lymph nodes ANS: C 32. B cells that are actively responding to antigen can be found in the: A. peripheral blood. B. primary follicles. C. germinal centers. D. bone marrow. ANS: C 33. Contact with antigen and activation of B cells normally occurs in the: A. peripheral blood. B. connective tissue. C. thymus. D. lymph nodes. ANS: D 34. Which best describes lymph nodes? A. They line the interior of small blood vessels. B. They are concentrated where appendages join the thorax of the body. C. They are approximately 12 cm in size. D. They are considered primary or central lymphoid organs. ANS: B 35. Which of the following is a characteristic of opsonins? A. They are carbohydrates that stimulate T cells. B. They are molecules that coat bacteria, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis. C. They are expressed on the surface of neutrophils. D. They are produced by NK cells. ANS: B 36. “Cluster of differentiation” refers to: A. a category of cell surface proteins used to identify cell types. B. aggregates of differentiating stem cells. C. groups of antigens that identify a cell as foreign. D. the cells that congregate in germinal centers. ANS: A 37. All of the following are commonly found within non-lymphoid tissues EXCEPT: A. B cells. B. macrophages. C. mast cells. D. dendritic cells. ANS: A Matching Match each scientist with the appropriate immunological discovery. A. Elie Metchnikoff B. Edward Jenner C. Emil Von Behring D. Almoth Wright 38. Vaccination 39. Opsonization 40. Humoral immunity 41. Phagocytosis 38. B 39. D 40. C 41. A . Powered by TCPDF () Chapter 2. Nature of Antigens and the Major Histocompatibility Complex Multiple Choice 1. An antigenic determinant is also called: A. an immunogen. B. an epitope. C. an antibody. D. a polysaccharide. ANS: B 2. Which of the following would be the most effective immunogen? A. One that is genetically foreign and has a single epitope B. One with a molecular weight of less than 10,000 Da C. One with multiple epitopes with many specificities D. One with multiple epitopes with a single repeated specificity ANS: C 3. A 50-kDa protein from a bacterial cell that has numerous different epitopes would be called: A. a hapten but not an antigen. B. a hapten and an antigen. C. an antigen but not an immunogen. D. an immunogen and an antigen. ANS: D 4. Which of the following molecules is the best immunogen? A. Protein B. Polysaccharide C. Nucleic acid D. Lipid ANS: A 5. Which of the following is a low-molecular-weight molecule that has one binding site for an antibody? A. Antigen B. Hapten This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :47:02 GMT -05:00 C. Immunogen D. Adjuvant ANS: B 6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic shared by class I and class II MHC molecules? A. Expressed co-dominantly B. Involved in antigen recognition C. Members of the immunoglobulin superfamily D. Expressed constitutively on all nucleated cells ANS: D 7. Antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells requires: A. class I MHC molecules. B. class II MHC molecules. C. class III MHC molecules. D. no MHC molecules. ANS: B 8. Class II molecules bind to what kind of peptides? A. Native peptides B. Processed exogenous C. Processed endogenous D! Any of the above ANS: B 9. Each class II MHC molecule has specificity for: A. any endogenous peptide. B. related peptides that share a similar peptide sequence. C. one very specific peptide sequence. D. native, conformational epitopes. ANS: B 10. MHC molecules containing beta-2-microglobulin: A. contain alpha and beta transmembrane polypeptides. B. participate in the activation of CD4 T cells. C. are determined by MHC-A, MHC-B, and MHC-C genes. This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :47:02 GMT -05:00 D. are determined by MHC-DR genes. ANS: C 11. The purpose of the invariant chain is to block the peptide-binding site of: A. antibody molecules. B. class II MHC molecules. C. class I MHC molecules. D. T-cell receptors. ANS: B 12. Which of the following is a characteristic of MHC-DR, MHC-DP, and MHC-DQ molecules? A. Antigen receptors on all lymphocytes B. Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes C. Surface alloantigens on liver and kidney cells D. Expressed co-dominantly (maternal and paternal) ANS: D 13. A processed antigen first encounters and binds to MHC class II molecules in the: A. nucleus. B. endoplasmic reticulum. C. endosomal compartment. D. membrane surface. ANS: C 14. A processed antigen first encounters and binds to class I MHC molecules in the: A. nucleus. B. endoplasmic reticulum. C. endosomal compartment. D. membrane surface. ANS: B 15. Endogenous peptides binding to MHC-A, MHC-B, or MHC-C molecules on the surface of hepatocytes are critical for the response by: A. B lymphocytes. B. T helper cells. C. cytotoxic T cells. This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :47:02 GMT -05:00 D. macrophages. ANS: C 16. Which of the following is likely to be the most immunogenic? A. A lipid with a molecular weight of 50,000 Da B. A polysaccharide with a molecular weight of 40,000 Da C. A protein with a molecular weight of 45,000 Da D. A nucleic acid with a molecular weight of 60,000 Da ANS: C 17. Antigens found in different species that trigger a similar antibody response are called: A. heterophile antigens. B. haptens. C. alloantigens. D. autoantigens. ANS: A 18. The term “human leukocyte antigen” is synonymous with: A. allele. B. haplotype. C. major histocompatibility complex. D. chromosome. ANS: C 19. The ability to respond to antigen depends on which of the following factors? A. Age B. Proper nutrition C. Genetic predisposition D! All of the above ANS: D 20. A macromolecule that is capable of eliciting an immune response in an immunocompetent host is called: A. an antigen. B. an antibody. C. a hapten. D. an acute-phase reactant. This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :47:02 GMT -05:00 ANS: A 21. A bacterial antigen to which the human immune system responds would be classified as: A. an autoantigen. B. an alloantigen. C. a heteroantigen. D. a holoantigen. ANS: C 22. Which option best describes a finding of Landsteiner's study of haptens? A. Similar haptens trigger the same antibody response. B. Spatial configuration is recognized by antibody. C. Small chemical changes to a hapten do not affect antibody response. D. A hapten can react with many different antibodies. ANS: B 23. Naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B antibodies are thought to be the result of exposure to which of the following? A. Heterophile antigens B. Haptens C. Alloantigens D. Autoantigens ANS: A 24. A substance that is too small to stimulate antibody production by itself unless it is attached to a larger carrier molecule is called: A. an autoantigen. B. a cross-reacting antigen. C. a hapten. D. an alloantigen. ANS: C 25. A determinant site on an antigen that is produced by the folding of the primary chain is known as a: A. conformational epitope. B. linear epitope. C. hapten. D. monovalent epitope. This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :47:02 GMT -05:00 ANS: A 26. If a person has a reaction to poison ivy, this is caused by: A. a hapten complexing with a tissue protein. B. a heterophile antigen. C. a T-independent antigen. D. exposure to an adjuvant. ANS: A 27. Aluminum salt in the hepatitis vaccine functions as: A. a hapten. B. an adjuvant. C. an immunogen. D. a carrier. ANS: B 28. In antigen processing, the function of transporters associated with antigen-processing proteins is to: A. help digest large proteins. B. bind to MHC class II molecules in the endoplasmic reticulum. C. transport digested proteins to MHC class I molecules. D. recognize and digest exogenous protein. ANS: C 29. A substance used to enhance antibody formation is called: A. a hapten. B. an adjuvant. C. an immunogen. D. a carrier. ANS: B 30. MHC class I antigens are recognized by which of the following cells? A. CD4+ T cells B. CD8+ T cells C. B cells D. Macrophages This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :47:02 GMT -05:00 ANS: B 31. Characteristics of MHC class II molecules include which of the following? A. Interact with CD8+ T cells B. Have an alpha chain and beta-2 microglobulin C. Have alpha and beta chains of approximately equal size D. Combine with antigen made inside the cell ANS: C 32. If a mother is MHC A3A14/B5B15/Cw3Cw4 and her child is A3A9/B5B27/Cw4Cw7, which of the following men is the most likely candidate for the father? A. A5A9/B5B27/Cw3Cw7 B. A9A11/B15B21/Cw1Cw4 C. A4A15/B2B27/Cw1Cw5 D. A5A9/B17B27/Cw3Cw5 ANS: A 33. Which option best describes MHC class I antigens? A. They are recognized by helper T cells. B. They are found on all nucleated cells. C. They combine with exogenous antigen. D. They are coded for on chromosome 9. ANS: B 34. The antigens that bind MHC class II antigens are first “processed” by: A. the proteasome. B. the endoplasmic reticulum. C. transporters associated with antigen processing. D. enzymes in the endosome. ANS: D 35. Characteristics of heterophile antigens include which of the following? A. Found in unrelated plants or animals but cross-react with the same antibody B. One's own self-antigens C. Any antigens used for immunization D! All of the above ANS: A This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :47:02 GMT -05:00 36. Which of the following must be matched between donor and recipient as closely as possible to avoid rejection of a tissue transplant? A. Haptens B. MHC molecules C. Transporters associated with antigen processing D. Beta-2 microglobulins ANS: B 37. All of the following are characteristics of a strong immunogen EXCEPT: A. it is a large molecule. B. it is foreign to the host. C. it is a repeating polymer. D. it is protein in nature. ANS: C 38. MHC class I protein is found on: A. red blood cells. B. all nucleated cells. C. B cells and macrophages only. D. stem cells only. ANS: B 39. The inheritance of certain MHC antigens can result in which of the following? A. Increased resistance to certain infectious organisms B. Predisposition to particular autoimmune diseases C. Diminished immune responses to particular antigens D! All of the above ANS: D 40. T cells are capable of recognizing: A. conformational epitopes. B. native (nondegraded) peptides. C. degraded peptides. D. haptens. ANS: C This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :47:02 GMT -05:00 Powered by TCPDF () Chapter 3. Fundamentals of Immunology Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Only 5% of Kell-negative individuals will develop antibodies to Kell if exposed to the Kell antigen, whereas 50% to 70% of Rh(D)-negative individuals would produce antibodies to D upon exposure. What is the reason for this? a. Difference in ABO type c. Phenotype b. Difference in immunogenicity d. All of the above ____ 2. What is the definition of an immunoglobulin? a. A protein molecule produced in response to an antigen b. A protein molecule produced in response to an antibody c. A substance that aids in the primary immune response d. A substance that aids in the growth and proliferation of leukocytes ____ 3. IgG-coated RBCs will be phagocytized by what effector cells? a. Monocytes/macrophages c. Eosinophils b. T cells d. Basophils ____ 4. What class of immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta? a. IgM c. IgE b. IgG d. IgD ____ 5. What is responsible for recognition of the antibody-binding site to homologous antigen? a. Phenotype b. Solubility of antigen c. Variable region of light/heavy chain d. Complementarity ____ 6. Which of the following is not true of monoclonal reagents? a. Monoclonal reagents are produced for single antigens with more than one epitope. b. Monoclonal reagents are highly specific. c. Monoclonal reagents are highly characterized and are uniformly reactive. d. Monoclonal reagents are produced by hybridoma technology. ____ 7. At what temperature do IgM antibodies react? a. 22°C c. 56°C b. 37°C d. 42°C ____ 8. What is a possible explanation for a weak reaction (1+) in a reverse ABO grouping test? a. Elderly patient c. IgM deficiency b. Immunocompromised patient d. All of the above ____ 9. An agglutination inhibition test is performed on a person whose blood type is A+. The person's saliva is mixed with type A antisera. After incubation, the solution is mixed with reagent A cells and no agglutination occurs. What can be deduced from this finding? a. The person is a non-secretor of A substance. b. The person is a non-secretor of O substance. c. The person is a secretor of A substance. d. The person is a secretor of O substance. This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :47:07 GMT -05:00 ____ 10. How can T cells be differentiated from B cells? a. Secretion of interleukin-2 b. CD2 marker c. Agglutination of sheep erythrocytes d. All of the above ____ 11. Which of the following statements is true concerning immunoglobulin variations? a. Allotypic variations occur primarily in the variable region. b. Isotypic refers to all members of a species. c. Idiotypic variation occurs in the constant region. d. Isotypic variation is associated with organ transplantation and paternity testing. ____ 12. What test is used to remove autoantibodies from test serum? a. Adsorption c. Elution b. Direct Coombs’ d. Indirect Coombs’ ____ 13. A person with the genotype MM shows a 3+ reaction when red blood cells are mixed with M antisera; whereas a person with the genotype MN shows a 1+ reaction. What phenomenon is occurring here? a. Dosage c. Zeta potential b. Prozone d. Hemolysis ____ 14. Name a lymphoid organ in which cells of the immune system can be found. a. Thymus c. Spleen b. Bone marrow d. All of the above ____ 15. At what age do infants begin to produce their own antibodies? a. 1 week c. 6 months b. 2 months d. 1 year ____ 16. Which of the following blood group systems is not likely to cause HDN? a. Kell c. MN b. ABO d. Rh ____ 17. What is the purpose of the antihuman globulin (AHG) test in blood banking? a. It detects red blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells. b. It detects white blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells. c. It detects red blood cells coated with antigen. d. All of the above ____ 18. Extravascular hemolysis occurs when red blood cells are coated with antibody; what organ sequesters these cells? a. Thymus c. Bone marrow b. Reticuloendothelial system d. All of the above ____ 19. Which IgG subclass primarily comprises antibodies to the Rh blood group system? a. IgG1, IgG2 c. IgG3, IgG4 b. IgG2, IgG4 d. IgG1, IgG3 ____ 20. Which immunoglobulin exists in a pentameric configuration? a. IgG c. IgA b. IgM d. IgE