IAHSS FINAL Exam Questions With Answers 2023/2024 | Latest Update Graded A+

Seven Signs of Terrorism - Answer 1. Surveillance 2. Suspicious questioning, 3. Test of Security, 4. Acquiring supplies and assets, 5. Suspicious people or activity, 6. Dry runs, 7. Deploying assets and getting into positions. Bomb Threat Plan: Basic Steps - Answer 1. Take preventive measures, 2. Establish authority-via Incident Command, 3. Gather as much information as possible as the threat is received, 4. Search for the Bomb, 5. Evacuate, as appropriate, 6. Terminate response, 7. Document and debrief. Three main security preventive measures to deter those who would bring a bomb to your facility - Answer 1. Control access by locking sensitive areas (e.g. computer rooms, air handlers, boiler rooms, telecommunication areas, and loading docks. 2. Use deterrents such as lighting, fences, cameras, and detection devices. 3. Identify suspicious individuals and their behaviors. Communication Do's and Don'ts during a bomb search - Answer 1. Do use the existing telephone system or 2. runners, but not with cell phones or two way radios. Don't use Cell phones or two way radios because they can detonate the bomb. Questions on the Telephone Bomb Threat Checklist - Answer 1. When is the bomb going to explode? 2. Where is the bomb? 3. What does it look like? 4. What kind of bomb is it? 5. What will cause it to explode? 6. Why was the bomb placed? 7. Where are you calling from? 8. What is your name? 9. What is your address? 10. Why are you calling me? 11. Why would you want to hurt innocent people Emergency Operations Plan serves what 3 purposes - Answer 1. Provides a written plan to guide the facility's respose to the emergency. 2. Outlines the organizational structure for managing the response. 3. Outlines how the organization will deal with 6 critical areas identified by the Joint Commission. Emergency Plan's 6 critical areas. - Answer 1. Communications 2. Resources and assets 3. security and safety 4. staff 5. Utilities 6. Patient Care The Joint Commission requirements on exercises to the emergency plan - Answer 1. At least 2 exercises must be completed a year. 2. One exercise per year must provide for an influx of simulated patients. 3. One excercise per year must be participation in a community-wide exercise. 4. One exercise per year must be an escalating event in which the community is not able to support the healthcare facility. 5. An actual emergency response may be substitued for an exercise. Common Causes and Effects of Civil Disturbances - Answer Civil disturbance-also called civil disorder or civil unrest-is a general term used by law enforcement to describe disturbances of a group. Freedom of Assembly - Answer Freedom of assembly is the individual right to come together with other individuals to collectively express, promote, pursue, and defend common interests. Civil Disorder - Answer Civil Disorder is a public disturbance by three or more people involving acts of violence that cause immediate danger, damage, or injury to others or their property. Security's Role during Civil Disturbance - Answer 1. To protect the perimeter of the facility. 2. To ensure clear access for emergency vehicles, employees, patients, visitors , and deliveries. Response Plan - Answer Needed to effectively manage and minimize the potential for negative outcomes and developing the framework needed to respond to a civil disturbance. Key Assumptions to Address in the Written Response Plan - Answer 1. Disturbances will adversely effect facility operations. 2. Access to the facility will affected: patients and employees will have difficulty reaching the facility; delivery of supplies will be difficult. 3. Response by the police and fire to the facility may be delayed and will likely be under-resourced at first. 4. Availability or adequate staffing may be affected. 5. Facility-wide lockdown with restricted access will be implemented. 6. Media will be present and may need to be controlled and managed in a separate location. 7. Planning and coordination will be an ongoing activity based on the changing nature of the incident. 8. Coordination with local agencies will occur, including law enforcement and public safety agencies. Security Management Plan - Answer This plan typically outlines the hospital's response to civil disturbances and references the full response plan within the Emergency Operation Plan (EOP) Strategies to Reduce Risk - Answer 1. Access Control, 2. Presenting Identification, 3. Inspections, 4. Protecting Security-Sensitive Areas. 5. Adequate Security Staffing. OSHA's strategies to prevent workplace violence - Answer Policy; Commitment; Patient History; Training; Employee Participation; Reporting; Alert System; Plan; Law enforcement Participation; Protection; Counseling; Legal Actions. Risk Identifying for workplace violence - Answer Particular departments; Activities; Workstations; and Time of Day Measurable Indicators for workplace violence - Answer Prior Incidents; Employee Surveys; Independent Reviewers. Facilitating De-escalation in regards to workplace violence - Answer Listening, empathy, and collaboration. Some Facts on WPV's - Answer Workplace violence affects an estimated 1.7 million US employees directly and millions more indirectly each year. Forty eight percent of all non-fatal assaults and violent acts in US workplaces occur in healthcare settings. The overall injury rate for nursing or personal care workers is 25 per 10,000 full time employees. This rate is much higher than that of all private-sector injuries, which is only 2 per 10,000 full time employees. Forty-three percent of healthcare establishments report having employees affected by workplace violence. Preventing Workplace Violence - Answer Policy, Commitment, Patient History, Training, Employee Participation, Reporting, Alert System, Plan, Law Enforcement, Protection, Counseling, Legal Actions. WPV Measurable Indicators - Answer Prior Incidents, Employee Surveys, and Independent Reviewers. WPV program has two key goals - Answer 1. Communicate the philosophy of the origination in dealing with workplace violence 2. Prepare healthcare workers to respond safely. Who should receive WPV training - Answer All staff should receive basic training on wpv prevention and procedures to follow when a WPV has occurred. Benefits of WPV Prevention Program - Answer More serious forms of violence will be less likely to occur Expensive and embarrassing incidents may be avoided A safer and more motivated workforce will emerge. Hostage Situations - Answer Hostage situations occur when one or more people are held against their will, with release contingent upon certain demands being satisfied. Two main hostage situations - Answer 1. Pre-meditated, 2. Reactionary. Pre-meditated hostage situation - Answer An individual or group develops and implements a specific plan. They wish to use hostages to promote a cause or elicit another response result, such as to obtain money or some degree of notoriety. IAHSS EXAM 2023 COMPLETED!! Reactionary hostage situation - Answer Reactionary hostage situations are generally not engineered with great detail. Rather, they are a response of desperation. A reactionary hostage situation can occur in response to an unsuccessful crime attempt. The hostage taker believes that taking a hostage will ultimately result in a more favorable outcome. High risk Areas for hostage taking - Answer Obstetrics, Emergency Department, Pharmacy, and Administration. Felonies - Answer These are usually punishable by death, imprisonment for more than one year, and or a fine. Misdemeanors - Answer These crimes are usually punishable by imprisonment for more than less than one year and or a fine. Violations (Infractions) - Answer These are usually minor illegal acts punishable by fine. A violation, depending on the jurisdiction, may or may not be. considered a crime. Sworn Officers - Answer Those recognized by the state as law enforcement officials, having the same legal authority as any police officer in the state. Non-Sworn Officers - Answer Those not granted law enforcement powers, in criminal matters, these officers generally have the same authority as a regular citizen of the state. Probable Cause - Answer Probable cause is the constitutional foundation or cause for most arrests and searches and seizures. Arrest - Answer As it relates to an arrest probable cause exists when there is sufficient evidence for a reasonable person to believe that a crime has been, or is being committed by the suspect. Search and Seizure - Answer As it relates to a search and seizure, probable cause is sufficient evidence for a reasonable person to believe that a certain contraband, evidence, or fruit of a crime may be found at a specific location. Reasonable Suspicion - Answer Reasonable Suspicion is the amount of evidence a sworn officer needs to make a "stop" or conduct a "frisk." The amount of evidence required is less than probable cause but more than a mere hunch. Ability to Detain or Arrest - Answer Your power to detain or arrest depends on 1. The illegal behavior of the suspect. 2. The amount of force of evidence available to you , and 3. whether you are acting as a private citizen or law enforcement officer. Non-sworn Security Officers ability to detain - Answer Non-sworn Security Officers have a citizen's power to detain others. In general they main detain an individual when a felony has "in fact" been committed in their presence. IAHSS EXAM 2023 COMPLETED!! Non sworn Security Officers ability to detain for Assault - Answer In some states, a non sworn security officer may detain an individual for an assault committed in the officer's presence, a breach of the peace, or a crime involving theft or destruction of property. Reasonable and Necessary Force - Answer As a general rule, a security officer is entitled to that force that is reasonable and necessary to defend one's self or another from serious bodily harm. Authority to interview and interrogate; Interview - Answer To interview is to question a party whom the officer has no reason to believe is a suspect. Interrogate - Answer To interrogate is to question a party whom the officer suspects of criminal involvement. Custodial interrogation - Answer Custodial interrogation involves questioning a suspect under the circumstances wherein the suspect would feel under control of the officer. Sworn Officers dealing with Custodial Interrogation - Answer Sworn officers are bound by the US Constitution. They must advise suspects of their Miranda rights. This includes the right to counsel, the right to have a counsel appointed if the suspect cannot afford an attorney, the right to remain silent, and the notice that anything the suspect says can be use against the suspect latter in court. Non Sworn Officers dealing with Custodial Interrogation - Answer Except in a few states (those that have held that private security officers must abide by the Constitutional rights of suspects), non-sworn officers are not bound to provide suspects with the Miranda warnings. Abusive Techniques - Answer Abusive techniques may subject the officer to civil and possibly criminal liability. Examples of Abusive Techniques - Answer Excessive length; denial of restroom breaks; denial of the right to leave; verbal threats of arrest unless the suspect confesses; physical threats; other forms of intimidation to solicit a confession Employee Representatives - Answer When conducting an interviews with union employees, security officers need to be aware of the Weingarten rule announced by the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB). Under this rule, union members are entitled to have a union representative present for meetings that might result in disciplinary action. Sanctions for Constitutional, Civil Rights, and Criminal Violations The 3 main areas: - Answer 1. Exclusion of evidence obtained unconstitutionally, 2. Civil and criminal liability for violation of a party's civil rights, 3. criminal prosecution for illegal acts. Civil (tort) Law Sanctions: 2 major categories - Answer Intentional Torts-A party purposefully commits an act that harms another IAHSS EXAM 2023 COMPLETED!! Negligent Torts- A party has legal duty act reasonably and fails to do so; as a result; another is injured. Common intentional torts that security officers might commit when comforting suspicious persons. - Answer Assault, battery, false arrest, false imprisonment, invasion of privacy, malicious prosecution, defamation of character, intentional infliction of emotional distress, negligence. False Arrest - Answer False arrest may occur when one party, without probable cause, arrest another party. Battery - Answer Battery may occur when one party touches another party in a manner that is without consent and offensive to a reasonable person. False Imprisonment - Answer False Imprisonment may occur when a one party wrongfully denies another voluntary freedom of movement. Invasion of Privacy - Answer Invasion of privacy may occur when a party intrudes upon the reasonable expectation of privacy of another and the intrusion is one that would be highly offensive to a reasonable person. Malicious Prosecution - Answer Malicious prosecution may occur when one party, without probable cause and for a malicious purpose, initiates or continues criminal charges against another and there is a decision in the criminal proceedings in favor of the accused. Defamation of Character - Answer Defamation of character may occur when one party makes an untruthful statement about another party that is harmful to the named party's reputation, to a third "dis-interested" party. Privileged Communication - Answer A privileged communication may be either absolute or conditional. In general, comments made in judicial proceedings are absolutely privileged. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress - Answer Intentional infliction of emotional distress may occur when a party's malicious or outrageous manner leads to severe emotional distress in another. Negligence - Answer Negligence may occur when a party has a legal duty to act reasonably, the party fails to do so, and this failure is the proximate cause of injury to another. Compensatory Damages - Answer Compensatory damages are awarded by a court to compensate the plaintiff for actual losses. Punitive Damages - Answer Punitive damages mat be awarded if the court finds the defendant acted maliciously or outrageously. IAHSS EXAM 2023 COMPLETED!! Respondeat Superior - Answer Respondeat superior, a principal (the institution) is vicariously liable for the acts of its agent (the security officer) that are committed within the scope of employment. Some facts on private security - Answer There are no federal laws regulating private security; 10 states have absolutely no regulations for security guards; 29 states do not require any training; 16 states do not require criminal background checks; virtually no states have standards or regulations for proprietary or in-house security officers, yet there are approximately 400, 000 security officers nation-wide. Healthcare Security's four broad categories - Answer "Private" police: Contracted security: Proprietary security: Conservator of the peace "Private" Police - Answer Many healthcare facilities are associated with a governmental agency or authority. These facilities may have their security provided by sworn law enforcement officers. Contracted Security - Answer Some healthcare facilities contract with outside companies to provide security officers and services. Under these circumstances, two sets of specifications may apply: state and contractual Proprietary Security - Answer Some facilities use an "in-house (or proprietary) security force. In this case, you are an employee of the healthcare facility where you work. Conservator of the Peace - Answer Some states have conservator of the peace statutes. These allow security personnel (who meet certain criteria) to obtain some, but not necessarily all, police powers while working in a limited jurisdiction (usually, the healthcare organization's facility and its grounds). The difference between Police and conservator of the peace - Answer Police officers always have the power to act whenever they believe a crime is being committed. Conservator of the peace can only use those police powers granted specifically by the conservatorship. OSHA Regulations - Answer Hazard communication; Workplace emergency action plans; Confined spaces; Personal protective equipment; Respiratory protection; allowance for state plans; general duty clause; Guidelines for prevention of workplace violence Hazard Communication - Answer This standard describes employees' "right to know" what hazardous chemicals and substances may exist in the workplace. Workplace Emergency Action Plans - Answer This standard explains how to respond to various workplace emergencies, such as fire and evacuation. Confined Spaces - Answer This standard describes the regulations for working with and around confined spaces. IAHSS EXAM 2023 COMPLETED!! Personal Protective Equipment - Answer This standard requires employers to furnish employees with personal protective equipment (PPE) Respiratory Protection - Answer The standard includes guidelines for respirator use to protect against exposure to tuberculosis (TB). Allowance for State Plans - Answer Individual states are allowed to develop and enforce statewide occupational safety and health programs. General Duty Clause - Answer For hazards not specifically addressed by a particular OSHA standard, the OSHA may rely on the general duty clause. This clause says: the healthcare organization where you work "has a general duty to furnish each employee with employment and places of employment free from recognized hazards causing or likely to cause death or serious physical harm." Workplace Violence - Answer The OSHA has published guidelines for preventing workplace violence for healthcare and social service workers. While not enforced as standards, these are extremely helpful to security personnel and healthcare organizations tasked with preventing and reducing workplace violence Privacy Rule - Answer This rule is designed to protect the confidentially of a patient's health information. The rule designates what is considered "protected health information" (PHI) and set the standards regarding disclosure of this information. Security Rule - Answer This HIPPA rule covers the disclosure and protection of PHI by primarily electronic means. Security departments with a responsibility to provide physical security to their organization's computer assets must be familiar with this rule. The Joint Commission (Physical Environment Standards) - Answer Joint Commission standards that directly affect occupant health and safety include these physical environment standards: environment of care (EC), emergency management (EM), and life safety (LS) Environment of Care - Answer Environment of care standards include the following: safety and security management, hazardous materials and waste management, fire safety management, medical equipment management, utilities management. Emergency Management - Answer Emergency management standards address these topics: The healthcare organization's preparedness, response, and recovery from adverse events. Life Safety - Answer Life safety standards address these topics: maintaining a safe environment, in terms of fire prevention and control; meeting identified national fire codes. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) - Answer OHSA is a federal regulatory agency of the US Department of Labor. It primary focus is to ensure employee safety. IAHSS EXAM 2023 COMPLETED!! The healthcare industry must follow a few specific regulations, and all the general regulations know for hazards that could cause serious injury or death. These regulations are as follows: - Answer Electrical Safety, hazard communication, respiratory protection, blood and blood-bone pathogens, working conditions, machine guarding, hearing protection, eye protection, cylinder handling and storage. Hazard Communication - Answer The employer must provide a current inventory of identified hazardous chemicals in the workplace. The employer must provide trained staff and personal protective equipment (PPE) appropriate for each chemical being used. The employer must provide training, Material Safety Data Sheets (MDSD) and procedures necessary for safe handling in the event of an exposure, the employer must provide prompt medical treatment and appropriate medical monitoring to minimize the effects of the exposure. What is on the MSDS? - Answer Chemical name, manufacturer's name and address, physical characteristics, health hazards, fire and explosion data, personal protective equipment recommened, medical treatment if exposed. What do security officers need to know when respoding to a chemical emergency? - Answer Proper training, know the location of the MSDS, know the hazard before entering the area, and be protected from it, know the the appropriate clean-up procedures, know the access allowed during an incident. Blood-borne Pathogens - Answer Being exposed to blood or body fluids of another person presents a potential biological hazard. How can security offiers be exposed to blood and bodily fluids while on duty? - Answer When you are assisting in the emergency department, when you are responding to nedical emergencies, when you are restraining combative patient, when you are handling biohazardous material. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Codes - Answer NFPA 101: the Life Safety Code; NFPA 1: the Uniform Fire Code; NFPA 13: The standard for the installation of sprinkler systems; NFPA 72: the National Fire Alarm Code: NFPA 70: the National Electrical Code- the most widely used code in the world