NR 293 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers | Latest Update 2023/2024 (Graded A+)

A patient who has been on methotrexate therapy is experiencing mild pain. The patient is asking for aspirin for the pain. The nurse recognizes that which of these is true in this situation? a. The aspirin will aggravate diarrhea. b. The aspirin will masks signs of infection. c. Aspirin can lead to methotrexate toxicity. d. The aspirin will cause no problems for the patient on methotrexate. ANS: C Methotrexate interacts with weak organic acids, such as aspirin, and can lead to toxicity by displacing the methotrexate from protein-binding sites. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) REF: p. 720 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation 6. The nurse is reviewing infection-prevention measures with a patient who is receiving antineoplastic drug therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching? a. "I will avoid those who have recently had a vaccination." b. "I will eat only fresh fruits and vegetables." c. "I will report a sore throat, cough, or low-grade temperature." d. "It is important for both my family and me to practice good hand washing." ANS: B Patients who are neutropenic and susceptible to infections need to adhere to a low-microbe diet by washing fresh fruits and vegetables and making sure foods are well cooked. The other options are correct. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) REF: p. 729 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation 7. The nurse is administering a combination of three different antineoplastic drugs to a patient who has metastatic breast cancer. Which statement best describes the rationale for combination therapy? a. There will be less nausea and vomiting. b. Increased cancer-cell killing will occur. c. The drugs will prevent metastasis. d. Combination therapy reduces the need for radiation therapy. ANS: B Because drug-resistant cells commonly develop, exposure to multiple drugs with multiple mechanisms and sites of action will destroy more subpopulations of cells. The other options are incorrect. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) REF: p. 715 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Planning 8. A patient is receiving irinotecan (Camptosar), along with other antineoplastic drugs, as treatment for ovarian cancer. The nurse will monitor for which potentially life-threatening adverse effect that is associated with this drug? a. Severe stomatitis b. Bone marrow suppression c. Delayed-onset cholinergic diarrhea d. Immediate and severe nausea and vomiting ANS: C In addition to producing hematologic adverse effects, irinotecan has been associated with severe diarrhea, known as cholinergic diarrhea, which may occur during infusions. Delayed diarrhea may occur 2 to 10 days after infusion of irinotecan. It is recommended that this condition be treated with atropine unless use of that drug is strongly contraindicated. This diarrhea can be severe and even life threatening. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) REF: p. 723 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Evaluation 9. The nurse is monitoring a patient who has severe bone marrow suppression following antineoplastic drug therapy. Which is considered a principal early sign of infection? a. Fever b. Diaphoresis c. Tachycardia d. Elevated white blood cell count ANS: A Fever and/or chills may be the first sign of an oncoming infection. Elevated white blood cell count will not occur because of the bone marrow suppression. The other options are incorrect. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) REF: p. 729 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Assessment 10. A patient, diagnosed with lymphoma, has an allergy to one of the proposed chemotherapy drugs. The tumor has not responded to other types of treatment. The nurse expects the oncologist to follow which course of treatment? a. The physician will choose another drug to use. b. The chemotherapy will be given along with supportive measures to treat a possible allergic reaction. c. The patient will receive reduced doses of chemotherapy for a longer period of time. d. The chemotherapy cannot be given because of the patient's allergy. ANS: B Even if a patient has a known allergic reaction to a given antineoplastic medication, the urgency of treating the patient's cancer may still necessitate administering the medication and then treating any allergic symptoms with supportive medications, such as antihistamines, corticosteroids, and acetaminophen. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) REF: p. 717 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Planning 11. During treatment of a patient who has brain cancer, the nurse hears the oncologist mention that the patient has reached the "nadir." The nurse knows that this term means which of these? a. The lowest level of neutrophils reached during therapy. b. The highest level of neutrophils reached during therapy. c. The point at which the adverse effects of chemotherapy will stop. d. The point at which the cytotoxic action against cancer cells is the highest. ANS: A The lowest neutrophil count reached after a course of chemotherapy is known as the nadir. The other options are incorrect. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) REF: p. 717 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation 1. Methotrexate is ordered for a patient with a malignant tumor, and the nurse is providing education about self-care after the chemotherapy is given. Which statements by the nurse are appropriate for the patient receiving methotrexate? (Select all that apply.) a. Report unusual bleeding or bruising. b. Hair loss is not expected with this drug. c. Prepare for hair loss. d. Avoid areas with large crowds or gatherings. e. Avoid foods that are too hot or too cold or rough in texture. f. Restrict fluid intake to reduce nausea and vomiting. ANS: A, C, D, E Counsel patients who are taking methotrexate to expect hair loss and to report any unusual bleeding or bruising. Because of the possibility of infection, avoid areas with large crowds or gatherings. Foods that are too hot or too cold or rough in texture may be irritating to the oral mucosa. Fluid intake is to be encouraged to prevent dehydration. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) REF: pp. 731-732 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation 2. When giving chemotherapy as cancer treatment, the nurse recognizes that toxicity to rapidly growing normal cells also occurs. Which rapidly growing normal cells are also harmed by chemotherapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Bone marrow cells b. Retinal cells c. Hair follicle cells d. Nerve myelin cells e. Gastrointestinal (GI) mucous membrane cells ANS: A, C, E Chemotherapy toxicities generally stem from the fact that chemotherapy drugs affect rapidly dividing cells—both harmful cancer cells and healthy, normal cells. Three types of rapidly dividing human cells are the cells of hair follicles, GI tract cells, and bone marrow cells. The other options are incorrect. DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Understanding (Comprehension) REF: p. 725 TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation 1. A patient is to receive a daily dose of fludarabine (Fludara), 25 mg/m2/day for 5 consecutive days. Each dose is diluted in a 125-mL bag of normal saline and is to infuse over 30 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to what rate in milliliters per hour? _______ ANS: 250 ml/hr DIF: COGNITIVE LEVEL: Applying (Application) REF: N/A TOP: NURSING PROCESS: Implementation The patient is receiving two different drugs. At current dosages and dosage forms, both drugs are absorbed into the circulation in identical amounts. Which term is used to identify this principle? a. Bioequivalent b. Synergistic c. Prodrugs d. Steady state A (Two drugs absorbed into the circulation in the same amount (in specific dosage forms) have the same bioavailability; thus, they are bioequivalent. A drug's steady state is the physiologic state in which the amount of drug removed via elimination is equal to the amount of drug absorbed from each dose. The term synergistic refers to two drugs, given together, with a resulting effect that is greater than the sum of the effects of each drug given alone. A prodrug is an inactive drug dosage form that is converted to an active metabolite by various biochemical reactions once it is inside the body.) When given an intravenous medication, the patient says to the nurse, "I usually take pills. Why does this medication have to be given in the arm?" What is the nurse's best answer? a. "The medication will cause fewer adverse effects when given intravenously." b. "The intravenous medication will have delayed absorption into the body's tissues." c. "The action of the medication will begin sooner when given intravenously." d. "There is a lower chance of allergic reactions when drugs are given intravenously." C (An intravenous (IV) injection provides the fastest route of absorption. The IV route does not affect the number of adverse effects, nor does it cause delayed tissue absorption (it results in faster absorption). The IV route does not affect the number of allergic reactions.) The nurse is administering parenteral drugs. Which statement is true regarding parenteral drugs? a. Parenteral drugs bypass the first-pass effect. b. Absorption of parenteral drugs is affected by reduced blood flow to the stomach. c. Absorption of parenteral drugs is faster when the stomach is empty. d. Parenteral drugs exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream. A (Drugs given by the parenteral route bypass the first-pass effect. Reduced blood flow to the stomach and the presence of food in the stomach apply to enteral drugs (taken orally), not to parenteral drugs. Parenteral drugs must be absorbed into cells and tissues from the circulation before they can exert their effects; they do not exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream.) When monitoring the patient receiving an intravenous infusion to reduce blood pressure, the nurse notes that the patient's blood pressure is extremely low, and the patient is lethargic and difficult to awaken. This would be classified as which type of adverse drug reaction? a. Adverse effect b. Allergic reaction c. Idiosyncratic reaction d. Pharmacologic reaction D (A pharmacologic reaction is an extension of a drug's normal effects in the body. In this case, the antihypertensive drug lowered the patient's blood pressure levels too much. The other options do not describe a pharmacologic reaction. An adverse effect is a predictable, well-known adverse drug reaction that results in minor or no changes in patient management. An allergic reaction (also known as a hypersensitivity reaction) involves the patient's immune system. An idiosyncratic reaction is unexpected and is defined as a genetically determined abnormal response to normal dosages of a drug.) The nurse is reviewing pharmacology terms for a group of newly graduated nurses. Which sentence defines a drug's half-life? a. The time it takes for the drug to cause half of its therapeutic response b. The time it takes for one half of the original amount of a drug to reach the target cells c. The time it takes for one half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the body d. The time it take C (drug's half-life is the time it takes for one half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the body. It is a measure of the rate at which drugs are removed from the body. The other options are incorrect definitions of half-life.) When administering drugs, the nurse remembers that the duration of action of a drug is defined as which of these? a. The time it takes for a drug to elicit a therapeutic response b. The amount of time needed to remove a drug from circulation c. The time it takes for a drug to achieve its maximum therapeutic response d. The time period at which a drug's concentration is sufficient to cause a therapeutic response D (Duration of action is the time during which drug concentration is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic response. The other options do not define duration of action. A drug's onset of action is the time it takes for the drug to elicit a therapeutic response. A drug's peak effect is the time it takes for the drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response. Elimination is the length of time it takes to remove a drug from circulation.) When reviewing the mechanism of action of a specific drug, the nurse reads that the drug works by selective enzyme interaction. Which of these processes describes selective enzyme interaction? a. The drug alters cell membrane permeability. b. The drug's effectiveness within the cell walls of the target tissue is enhanced. c. The drug is attracted to a receptor on the cell wall, preventing an enzyme from binding to that receptor. d. The drug binds to an enzyme molecule and inhibits or enhances the enzyme's action with the normal target cell. D (With selective enzyme interaction, the drug attracts the enzymes to bind with the drug instead of allowing the enzymes to bind with their normal target cells. As a result, the target cells are protected from the action of the enzymes. This results in a drug effect. The actions described in the other options do not occur with selective enzyme interactions.) When administering a new medication to a patient, the nurse reads that it is highly protein bound. Assuming that the patient's albumin levels are normal, the nurse would expect which result, as compared to a medication that is not highly protein bound? a. Renal excretion will be faster. b. The drug will be metabolized quickly. c. The duration of action of the medication will be shorter. d. The duration of action of the medication will be longer. D (Drugs that are bound to plasma proteins are characterized by longer duration of action. Protein binding does not make renal excretion faster, does not speed up drug metabolism, and does not cause the duration of action to be shorter.) The patient is experiencing chest pain and needs to take a sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where does the nurse instruct the patient to place the tablet? a. Under the tongue b. On top of the tongue c. At the back of the throat d. In the space between the cheek and the gum A (Drugs administered via the sublingual route are placed under the tongue. Drugs administered via the buccal route are placed in the space between the cheek and the gum; oral drugs are swallowed. The other options are incorrect.) The nurse is administering medications to the patient who is in renal failure resulting from end-stage renal disease. The nurse is aware that patients with kidney failure would most likely have problems with which pharmacokinetic phase? a. Absorption b. Distribution c. Metabolism d. Excretion D (The kidneys are the organs that are most responsible for drug excretion. Renal function does not affect the absorption and distribution of a drug. Renal function may affect metabolism of drugs to a small extent.) patient who has advanced cancer is receiving opioid medications around the clock to keep him comfortable as he nears the end of his life. Which term best describes this type of therapy? a. Palliative therapy b. Maintenance therapy c. Empiric therapy d. Supplemental therapy A (The goal of palliative therapy is to make the patient as comfortable as possible. It is typically used in the end stages of illnesses when all attempts at curative therapy have failed. Maintenance therapy is used for the treatment of chronic illnesses such as hypertension. Empiric therapy is based on clinical probabilities and involves drug administration when a certain pathologic condition has an uncertain but high likelihood of occurrence based on the patient's initial presenting symptoms. Supplemental (or replacement therapy) supplies the body with a substance needed to maintain normal function.) patient is complaining of a headache and asks the nurse which over-the-counter medication form would work the fastest to help reduce the pain. Which medication form will the nurse suggest? a. A capsule b. A tablet c. An enteric-coated tablet d. A powder D (Of the types of oral medications listed, the powder form would be absorbed the fastest, thus having a faster onset. The tablet, the capsule, and, finally, the enteric-coated tablet would be absorbed next, in that order.) The nurse will be injecting a drug into the fatty tissue of the patient's abdomen. Which route does this describe? a. Intradermal b. Subcutaneous c. Intramuscular d. Transdermal B