CMA (AAMA) Practice Questions and Answers 2023

CMA (AAMA) Practice Questions and Answers 2023 Which of the following terms describes an abnormal lateral curvature of a patient's spine? A. Spondylosis-This term is used to describe degenerative osteoarthritis of the joints between the center of the spinal vertebrae and/or neural foramina. B. Ankylosis-This term refers to immobility or stiffness of a joint due to disease, injury, or a surgical procedure. C. Lordosis-This is an abnormal anterior convexity of the lumbar spine, not posterior. D. Kyphosis-This term describes abnormal posterior curvature of the spine. E. Scoliosis-This is a lateral curvature of the spine of more than 10 degrees to the right or left as the examiner faces the patient. E. Scoliosis-This is a lateral curvature of the spine of more than 10 degrees to the right or left as the examiner faces the patient. Which of the following characteristics would enable a medical assistant to effectively communicate with patients? A. Impartiality-Treating patients equally based on their needs enhances communication. B. Judgmental-Personal values of the medical assistant may differ from the patient's and a judgmental attitude will decrease patient communication. C. Biases-Prejudice prevents effective communication. D. Stereotyping-Grouping patients based on characteristics interferes with communication. E. Discrimination-Actions against certain groups of individuals would prevent effective communication. A. Impartiality-Treating patients equally based on their needs enhances communication. Which of the following positions would be appropriate for a patient with severe emphysema who is waiting to be examined by the physician? A. Supine-In the supine position, the patient is lying flat on the back. B. Knee-chest-In the knee-chest position, the patient is in a prone position with their knees beneath them and the buttocks elevated. C. Fowler-Fowler's position is used to examine the upper body of patients with cardiovascular and respiratory problems, such as congestive heart failure, emphysema, and asthma. D. Sims-In the Sims position, the patient is on his/her side. E. Trendelenburg-The Trendelenburg position is a supine position with the pelvis higher than the head. C. Fowler-Fowler's position is used to examine the upper body of patients with cardiovascular and respiratory problems, such as congestive heart failure, emphysema, and asthma. The head is elevated, making it easier to breathe. The following patients are in the reception room when the physician arrives. Which patient should be seen first? A. A 16 -year- old football player who was injured and has slurred speech and confusion B. An afebrile 60 year old with a cough and sore throat of 48 hours duration C. A 16 year old with menorrhagia over the past 2 days D. An 8 year old with 102 degree fever and cough of 12 hours duration E. A 10-year-old child with diarrhea over the past 24 hours A. A 16 -year- old football player who was injured and has slurred speech and confusion These symptoms related to a head injury would take priority over the others waiting. After examining a competent adult patient who was bitten by a wild animal, the physician advises the patient to have a series of rabies injections. The patient refuses to undergo the injections and leaves the office. Which of the following actions should be taken by the practice? A. Notify the physician's malpractice insurance carrier. B. Notify the police. C. Notify the local medical society. D. Send a certified letter to the patient outlining the consequences. E. Send a certified letter to the patient's family with a copy to the patient. D. Send a certified letter to the patient outlining the consequences. The physician has an obligation to notify the patient of the potential danger to his health in this situation. Which of the following foods should be eliminated from the diet of a patient on a sodium restricted diet? A. Baked fish products B. Pasteurized, processed cheese C. Green leafy vegetables D. Fresh fruits E. Fried chicken B. Pasteurized, processed cheese Processed cheese is high in sodium content. Which of the following is the best course of action for the medical assistant to take when responding to a call from a patient who had an intramuscular injection earlier in the day and who now reports weakness in that arm? A. Make an appointment for the patient and inform the physician of the problem. B. Refer the patient to a neurologist for evaluation. C. Tell the patient to keep a heating pad on the arm and take two aspirin. D. Explain to the patient that this is a normal reaction and if the weakness does not improve in a few days, call back. E. Obtain as much information as possible, explaining to the patient that the doctor will be advised and the call returned. E. Obtain as much information as possible, explaining to the patient that the doctor will be advised and the call returned. This situation requires medical decision-making and should be handled by the physician. Which of the following is a suffix referring to pain? A. -penia ; This refers to deficiency. B. -malacia ; This refers to softening. C. -dynia ; This refers to pain. D. -acusis ; This refers to hearing. E. -orexia ; This refers to appetite. C. -dynia ; This refers to pain. According to Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) coding rules, a new patient is one who has not received professional services from the physician or a qualified health care professional in the practice of the exact same specialty and subspecialty for a MINIMUM of how many years? A. 1 year. B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years E. 5 years C. 3 years If it has been at least 3 years since the patient was seen, then the patient is considered new to the practice for coding purposes. Which of the following is most likely to be included in the subjective portion of a SOAP chart note? A. Retinal detachment B. Diazepam (Valium) 5 mg C. Pulse 60 bpm D. Dizziness for three days E. Normal sinus rhythm D. Dizziness for three days This is reported by the patient and is subjective. Which of the following would be decreased when a patient mails a check to the clinic to pay for services previously rendered? A. Disbursement account- This is a record of funds paid out from the practice. B. Accounts payable- This is the amount owed by the clinic. C. Accounts receivable- The amount owed to the clinic will decrease. D. Balance sheet- This is the ending balance of a businesses' assets, liabilities, and equity accounts. E. Income statement-Income increases when accounts are paid. C. Accounts receivable The amount owed to the clinic will decrease. Toprol XL (metoprolol) is known to cause which of the following conditions? A. Hypernatremia- Hypernatremia means high level of sodium in the blood. It is not associated with the use of Toprol. B. Hypokalemia- Hypokalemia means a low level of potassium in the blood. It is not associated with the use of Toprol. C. Bradycardia- Beta-adrenergic blockers such as Toprol reduce the rate and strength of the heartbeat. D. Chloasma- Chloasma consists of brown patches on the skin, associated with pregnancy or medications containing women's hormones. This is not associated with Toprol. E. Hypertension- Hypertension means high blood pressure. Toprol decreases the strength of the heartbeat and should lower blood pressure. Hypertension should not be a side effect of taking this medication. C. Bradycardia- Beta-adrenergic blockers such as Toprol reduce the rate and strength of the heartbeat. A medical assistant makes an error while under the physician's direction. Under which of the following doctrines will the court determine that the physician is liable for the medical assistant's negligence? A. Respondeat superior- This is a doctrine stating a physician is responsible for the medical assistant's actions while under the physician's supervision/direction. B. Res judicata- This is a legal term meaning something has been decided. C. Res ipsa loquitur- This is a legal term meaning "the action speaks for itself". D. Locum tenens- This term refers to temporarily filling a position with a substitute—usually a physician. E. Contributory negligence- This means the patient contributes in some way to the cause of the problem in medical liability. A. Respondeat superior- This is a doctrine stating a physician is responsible for the medical assistant's actions while under the physician's supervision/direction. Which of the following describes a surgical procedure that connects the common bile duct with the middle portion of the small intestines? A. Choledochoduodenostomy- This is the surgical formation of a passage between the common bile duct and the duodenum. B. Choledochojejunostomy- This is the procedure that connects the bile duct to the jejunum. C. Choledocholithotomy- This is removal of a gallstone through an incision of the bile duct. D. Choledochoenterostomy- This is surgical formation of a passage between the common bile duct and the intestine. E. Choledochostomy- This is surgical incision for drainage of the common bile duct. B. Choledochojejunostomy- This is the procedure that connects the bile duct to the jejunum. Coding for the removal of a pituitary tumor is located under which of the following body system descriptions of the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) book? A. Musculoskeletal- This system includes the bones, muscles, ligaments, and tendons but does not include the pituitary gland. B. Urinary- The urinary system includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and the urethra but does not include the pituitary gland. C. Nervous- The nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord and nerves but does not include the pituitary gland. D. Circulatory- The circulatory system includes the heart and vessels but does not include the pituitary gland. E. Endocrine- The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland that releases many hormones which affect growth, sexual development, metabolism and human reproduction. E. Endocrine- The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland that releases many hormones which affect growth, sexual development, metabolism and human reproduction. Upon accepting a patient for treatment, the physician has a duty to do which of the following? A. Be free from errors in judgment. B. Provide services similar to that of other physicians with the same level of training who provide the same service. C. Possess the highest degree of skill possible. D. Restore the patient to the same condition as before treatment began. E. Guarantee a successful result if an operation is performed. B. Provide services similar to that of other physicians with the same level of training who provide the same service. The physician has a duty to use reasonable skill that would be consistent with treatment of reputable practitioners in the same field. State laws vary regarding responsibilities of the physician in reporting conditions. However, all states require the reporting of which of the following? A. Deaths due to violence B. Congenital metabolic disorders C. Metastatic neoplasms D. Spina bifida E. Fetal alcohol syndrome A. Deaths due to violence These are always reportable by law. Which of the following arteries is most often used for assessing the pulse on a conscious patient? A. Temporal B. Femoral C. Dorsalis pedis D. Radial E. Brachial D. Radial- The radial pulse is the most frequently monitored and easily accessible pulse in the body. Which of the following is the proper cleansing technique with the alcohol pad when preparing the skin for an injection? A. Wipe in a recurring circular motion over the injection site starting out and moving inward. B. Move the wipe vertically going from left to right across the injection site, starting - approximately one inch from the injection site. C. Wipe horizontally beginning three inches above the injection site and ending three inches below the site. D. Wipe in an "S" movement across the injection site. E. Wipe in a circular motion beginning at the injection site and moving outward E. Wipe in a circular motion beginning at the injection site and moving outward The cleansing should begin at the injection site and move outward to avoid bringing bacteria onto the injection site. Which of the following is performed to obtain fluid from a joint? A. Pneumonocentesis- This is a surgical puncture of a lung for the purpose of aspiration. B. Paracentesis- This is a puncture to remove fluid from the abdominal cavity when a patient has ascites which is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen. C. Arthrocentesis- This is a puncture of a joint cavity with the aspiration of fluid. D. Thoracentesis- This is a surgical puncture into the chest cavity with the aspiration of fluid. E. Tympanocentesis- This is a surgical puncture of the tympanic membrane. C. Arthrocentesis- This is a puncture of a joint cavity with the aspiration of fluid. The medical assistant takes vital signs on a male patient age 25 and records a Body Mass Index (BMI) of 34 into the EMR. The patient is most at risk for which of the following conditions? A. Kyphoscoliosis- This is a deformity of the spine on coronal and sagittal planes. In the majority of cases there is no known cause for this condition. B. Sleep Apnea- A BMI over 25 can lead to other conditions such as sleep apnea, hypertension, and stroke. C. Osteomyelitis- This is an infection of the bone and bone marrow and does not result from high BMI. D. Vitiligo- This is a condition that causes loss of skin color in patches and is not related to BMI. E. Pulmonary Hypertension- This is a type of high blood pressure that affects the lungs and the right side of the heart and is not directly linked to BMI. B. Sleep Apnea- A BMI over 25 can lead to other conditions such as sleep apnea, hypertension, and stroke. Which of the following may occur in children who are treated with aspirin for a viral infection? A. Reye's syndrome- This is a syndrome of increased intracranial pressure, hypoglycemia, and liver dysfunction, potentially occurring in children treated with aspirin for a viral infection. B. Cytomegalovirus infection (CMV)- CMV is a human herpes virus. This virus can cause difficulty in infants and children ranging from minor symptoms to having late effects of vision and hearing loss. C. Infectious mononucleosis- This is a disease caused by the Epstein-Barr Virus. D. Muscular dystrophy- This is a group of inherited diseases causing weakness and muscle degeneration. E. Toxic shock syndrome- This is a severe illness thought to be caused by Staphylococcus aureus. A. Reye's syndrome- This is a syndrome of increased intracranial pressure, hypoglycemia, and liver dysfunction, potentially occurring in children treated with aspirin for a viral infection. Which of the following body structures is examined during a cystoscopy? A. Uterus-This would be a hysteroscopy. B. Kidney- This would be a nephroscopy. C. Rectum- This would be an anoscopy. D. Bladder- "Cysto" refers to bladder. E. Stomach- This would be a gastroscopy. D. Bladder- "Cysto" refers to bladder. Which of the following is an insurance program funded by both federal and state governments that provides for health care services based on income guidelines? A. Health Maintenance Organization- A Health Maintenance Organization is a type of managed care and is not income based. B. Medicaid- Medicaid programs are income-based and are funded by both the federal and state governments. C. Medicare- Medicare is NOT income-based—eligible members are those 65 and older, those with end stage renal disease, or those who are totally and permanently disabled. D. TriCare- TriCare is the military's healthcare program for families of active duty members and is not income based. E. Blue Shield- Blue Shield in an independent third party payer and not income based. B. Medicaid- Medicaid programs are income-based and are funded by both the federal and state governments.