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Test Bank for Davis Advantage for Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Linda S. Williams Paula D. Hopper

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Test Bank for Davis Advantage for Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Linda S. Williams Paula D. Hopper. A nurse would perform which of the following to detect varicose veins in a client? 1. Trendelenburg test 2. Arteriography 3. Romberg test 4. Babinski test Answer: 1 Rationale: The Trendelenburg test evaluates the backflow of blood through defective valves. After raising the legs to empty the veins, the client stands, and if the veins fill from above the site of suspected varicosity, the diagnosis is positive. A nurse cannot perform an arteriogram. The Babinski test is used to determine injury of the pyramidal tract in adults through firmly stroking the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot. The Romberg test assesses for position sense; the client loses balance when standing erect with feet together and eyes closed. Cognitive Level: Application Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 10. Choose the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with a platelet count of 24,000: 1. Gas Exchange, Impaired 2. Fatigue 3. Injury, Risk for 4. Infection, Risk for Answer: 3 Test Bank for Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Linda S. Williams Paula D. Hopper Rationale: The normal platelet count is 150,000–400,000. Therefore a report of 24,000 would put the client at risk for injury related to bleeding. Impaired gas exchange might be applicable for low hemoglobin. Fatigue would be expected with a low red blood count, and an elevated white blood count would put the client at risk for infection. Cognitive Level: Analysis Nursing Process: Nursing Diagnosis NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential Chapter 34 1. What actions should the nurse anticipate taking first when a young female’s lab findings come back with microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells (RBCs)? 1. Place the client on ‘nothing by mouth” (n.p.o.) status in anticipation of emergency surgery due to an acute hemorrhagic event. 2. Start an IV for replacement fluids, such as D5W or D5NS. 3. Consult with the dietitian to develop a diet that is high in iron products. 4. Assess the past history further for previous risks of bleeding or menstrual changes. Test Bank for Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Linda S. Williams Paula D. Hopper Answer: 4 The nurse should do additional health history assessment to identify the source of chronic bleeding. Questions related to length and amount of menstrual flow, color of stools, and any upper gastric bleeding/conditions that might be contributing to the potential bleeding should be asked before any other actions are taken. Emergency surgery is not the first action, since microcytic and hypochromic RBCs reflect a chronic bleeding condition and not an acute one. An acute bleeding condition would have normocytic cells in fewer numbers in relationship to the length of the acute bleeding episode. Fluid replacement alone with D5W or D5NS would not address the decreased ability of the body to carry oxygen, since the ability of the RBC to carry oxygen is dependent the hemoglobin, which requires iron to be present. The microcytic (small) and hypochromic (pale) descriptors of RBCs reflect the decreased amount of hemoglobin present in the cell that occurs with a chronic bleeding condition, which depletes the iron storage in the body. Although a dietitian might be called in to assist the client in understanding which foods are high in iron, this would not be the first action for the nurse. Further assessment is needed to identify the cause, since this is not an emergency condition. Bloom’s: Analysis Nursing Process: Interventions Client Needs: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 2. A client’s lab shows larger, oval-shaped, macrocytic red blood cells (RBCs) with thin membranes present. In addition, the client is complaining of paresthesia and proprioception. Which therapy would the nurse expect to be included in the discharge plan? 1. A diet higher in green, leafy vegetables; broccoli; wheat germ; and asparagus 2. A daily multivitamin with extra iron 3. Instructions about subcutaneous injections of erythropoietin for a few weeks 4. Instructions about intramuscular parenteral injections of B12 (Anacobin) orCyanocobalamin for the rest of her life Answer: 4 The macrocytic and oval-shaped RBCs with thin membranes are caused by B12 deficiency, typically because the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is permanently unable to make the intrinsic factor that is needed to absorb the B12 from foods. Therefore, an alternate absorption method (intramuscular) is needed for the body to be able to absorb the B12 while bypassing the GI tract. Thus, the intramuscular treatments are lifelong. Green, leafy vegetables; broccoli; wheat germ; and asparagus are foods high in folic acid but not high in B12. Larger macrocytic and oval-shaped RBCs with thin membranes, paresthesia, and proprioception are symptoms of a deficiency of B12, which Test Bank for Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Linda S. Williams Paula D. Hopper is needed for DNA synthesis and normal maturation of RBCs. Paresthesia (altered sensations, such as numbness or tingling) and proprioception (the sense of one’s position in space) are a result of damage of spinal cord and central nervous system from the decrease in B12 elements. Iron deficiency will result in microcytic and hypochromic RBCs, not oval-shaped macrocytic RBCs with thin membranes, which are related to a B12 deficiency. Therefore, extra iron and vitamins will not correct the symptoms. Erythropoietin stimulates new RBC production by the bone marrow, but if B12 is not present in the body to manufacture the DNA, the RBCs will not have the shape or size of normal RBCs. Bloom’s: Analysis Nursing Process: Planning Client Needs: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of sickle-cell crisis. Which of these tasks would the nurse perform first based upon the following clinical findings: temperature 102°F, O2 saturation of 89%, and complaints of severe abdominal pain? 1. Give Tylenol (acetaminophen) grains X (650 mg). 2. Apply oxygen per nasal cannula @ 3L/minute. 3. Administer morphine sulfate grain ¼ intramuscular. 4. Assess and document peripheral pulses. Answer: 2 Hypoxia is often the cause of sickling crisis from the clumping of damaged RBCs, which creates an obstruction and hypoxia distal to the clumping. Administering the oxygen will improve the pain and increase the oxygen saturation of body tissues. Therefore, applying the oxygen should be the first action by the nurse. Although the temperature is elevated, and will increase oxygen demands in the body by increased basal metabolic activity, this is not the first action the nurse should take, because sickling crisis is caused by oxygen deprivation in tissues, not by the fever. Morphine sulfate is a narcotic for pain, but it should be given after the oxygen is started, since the symptoms are caused by hypoxia. The morphine will decrease the pain and decrease metabolic oxygen needs by decreasing basal metabolic rates; therefore, supply is increased and demand is increased. Full body assessment, including peripheral pulses, is significant to identify the location of the potential obstruction, but this is secondary to treating the hypoxia that is known to be present from the sickling of the cells during sickle-cell crisis. Bloom’s: Application Nursing Process: Intervention Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation Test Bank for Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Linda S. Williams Paula D. Hopper 4. After several doses of chemotherapy, a client complains of fatigue, pallor, progressive weakness, exertional dyspnea, headache, and tachycardia. Which NANDA nursing diagnosis would the nurse list as the first priority? 1. Nutrition, imbalanced: less than body requirements 2. Activity Intolerance 3. Powerlessness 4. Coping, Ineffective Answer: 2 The symptoms (fatigue, pallor, progressive weakness, exertional dyspnea, headache, and tachycardia) are caused by aplastic anemia from bone marrow suppression, which is a side effect of the chemotherapy drugs. Decreased red blood cells cause less oxygen to be delivered to body tissues, resulting in tissue hypoxia. Tachycardia is a compensation mechanism to speed up the delivery of oxygen that is available in the fewer number of cells that are present. Tissue hypoxia will result in muscle fatigue, and the symptoms that are related to aplastic anemia will decrease endurance and ability to perform activities. Thus, this NANDA diagnosis should be the first priority. Nutrition or iron deficiency is not the cause of the symptoms, which are related to tissue hypoxia. Powerlessness is the lack of control over current situations, but this is not the client’s current problem. Her needs/symptoms are physical, and according to Maslow’s theory must be met prior to emotional needs. Although the client might be having coping issues, the physical symptoms are her greatest complaints; therefore, coping is not the top priority in planning her care. Again, physiological needs must be met prior to self-actualization needs. Bloom’s: Analysis Nursing Process: Planning Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control 5. When evaluating a client’s understanding about dietary needs following a dietary consult that covered home management of dietary deficiency anemia, which statement by the client would indicate a need for additional teaching? 1. “I will eat more fruits, vegetables, especially green, leafy ones, to get more B12 in my diet.” 2. “I will take vitamins with extra iron in addition to eating a balanced diet with meat to correct my anemia.” 3. “I will add food high in vitamin C to improve my absorption of iron in both my vitamins.” 4. “I will need to include more protein foods in my diet such as meats, dried beans, and whole-grain breads.” Answer: 2 Test Bank for Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Linda S. Williams Paula D. Hopper The problem is that the client has made a statement that is incorrect, and additional teaching or clarification of what was taught for accurate understanding by the client is needed from the nurse. “I will eat more fruits, vegetables, especially green, leafy ones, to get more B12 in my diet” is incorrect, and does need additional teaching for better home management: Adding B12 to the diet (more fruits and vegetables, especially green, leafy ones) will not correct the dietary deficiency anemia. The lack of iron is the problem that needs to be addressed. “I will take vitamins with extra iron in addition to eating a balanced diet with meat to correct my anemia” is correct, and does not require additional teaching. Extra iron is needed to help replace RBCs and treat the dietary deficiency anemia. “I will add food high in vitamin C to improve my absorption of iron in both my vitamins” is correct, and does not require additional teaching. Vitamin C will increase the absorption of iron and help the body replace RBCs from dietary deficiency anemia. “I will need to include more protein foods in my diet such as meats, dried beans, and wholegrain breads” is correct, and does not require additional teaching. Protein foods such as meats, dried beans, and whole-grain breads do contain iron that will help dietary deficiency anemia. Bloom’s: Application Nursing Process: Evaluation Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6. When assessing a client for acute myeloid leukemia (AML), the nurse would include which action in the plan of care to minimize the risk of complications? intake 1. Extra precautions when “handling” the client and “strict hand hygiene” 2. Additional nutrition spaced frequently throughout the day to increase caloric 3. Restriction of fluids and salts to decrease edema 4. Regulation of the thermostat for a cooler environment Answer: 1 AML results in neutropenia (decreased neutrophils = risk of infection) and thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets which leads to increased risk of bleeding). Therefore, actions to minimize these risks include caution when moving or assisting the client to move, as well as strict hand hygiene to prevent possible cross-contamination. Weight loss is a symptom of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), not AML. Therefore, dietary needs are not increased with AML. Restriction of fluids and salt are not needed. The client with AML does not have a problem with fluid shifts or edema that would require these restrictions. Fluids are encouraged to remove wastes that occur with chemotherapy treatment and cellular breakdown. Heat intolerance is a symptom of CML, not AML. CML has heat intolerance due to hypermetabolism state present with the condition. Bloom’s: Application Test Bank for Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Linda S. Williams Paula D. Hopper Nursing Process: Planning Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control 7. A client who has just been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is discussing anticipatory grieving. Which action by the nurse would be inappropriate at this time? 1. Establish open communication and encourage sharing of feelings to discuss grieving. 2. Make referrals for support or bereavement groups. 3. Identify role changes and family stress management strategies. 4. Encourage the client to get affairs “in order” now to avoid waiting until it is too late. Answer: 4 Anticipatory grieving is identifying emotional losses or potential losses such as function, independence, appearance, friends, self-esteem, and self prior to actual events related to death. The question is asking which topic is not to be addressed at this time, since the client was just diagnosed with CML. Encouraging the client to get affairs “in order” now to avoid waiting until it is too late is not appropriate at this time: Although this topic is helpful to prepare for the actual death, this is not the time because this removes all hope. Once the client has expressed a concern about getting affairs “in order,” the nurse can offer additional information or resources that are available. Establishing open communication and encourage sharing of feelings to discuss grieving is appropriate at this time: The nurse should establish a rapport and use therapeutic communication to allow the client to express feelings and emotions about the new diagnosis of CML. Making referrals for support or bereavement groups is appropriate at this time: Offering information and resources about agencies that deal with grieving is an option to show the client that she is not alone and agencies are out there to assist when the need is felt or when the client is ready to use them. In addition, this helps the client understand that anticipatory grieving is a normal process that occurs. Identifying role changes and family stress management strategies is appropriate at this time: Exploring possible role changes, stressors, and strategies associated with the disease progression will give the client a realistic approach to understanding the disease process and its consequences. This also helps the client begin to share with the family to build a foundation for mutual understanding and trust. Bloom’s: Application Nursing Process: Planning Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity

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Test Bank for Understanding
Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th
Edition Linda S. Williams
Paula D. Hopper

,Chapter 1


1. The nurse is caring for four clients on a medical–surgical unit. Which client should the
nurse see initially?

1. A client admitted with hepatitis A who has had severe diarrhea for the last
24 hours
2. A client admitted with pneumonia who is has small amounts of yellow
productive sputum
3. A client admitted with fever of unknown origin (FUO) who has been
without fever for the last 48 hours
4. A client admitted with a wound infection whose WBC is 8,500 mm3

Answer: 1

Rationale: The nurse must decide which client should be seen on the initial rounds of the
day. The nurse must remember that the first client to be seen should be the client
who needs the attention of the nurse initially. A client with hepatitis A does
experience diarrhea, but diarrhea for the last 24 hours could cause the client to
have a problem with dehydration and experience a state of fluid volume deficit.

Cognitive Level: Application
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment
Nursing Process: Planning


2. The nurse is preparing to administer influenza vaccines to a mass drive-through clinic.
Which statement by a client would indicate further questioning prior to giving the client
the influenza vaccine?

1. “I am allergic to horse hair.”
2. “I try to get my vaccine every year.”
3. “I am not allergic to anything except eggs.”
4. “My husband had a severe allergic reaction after he received his influenza
vaccine.”

Answer: 3

Rationale: Influenza vaccines are recommended for person at high risk for serious
sequelae of influenza. The nurse should be aware that client with a sensitivity to
eggs should not receive the vaccine. Vaccines prepared from chicken or duck
embryos are contraindicated in clients who are allergic to eggs.

Cognitive Level: Application

,Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment
Nursing Process: Assessment


3. The nurse is caring for four clients on a medical–surgical unit. The secretary gives the
nurse the morning labs. Which of the following labs would require that the nurse call the
physician and inform the healthcare provider about the client’s abnormalities?

1. WBC 14,600 mm3
2. Serum protein 6.9 g/dL
3. I & D (incision and drainage) showing no growth for the last 24 hours
4. Albumin 4.2 g/dL

Answer: 1

Rationale: When the nurse is caring for several clients, all of the labs should be checked
frequently throughout the shift to assess for any abnormalities. The WBC in option 1 is
abnormal. (Normal WBC 4,000–10,000 mm3.) All of the other lab results are within
acceptable range; therefore, the results should not be called in to the physician.

Cognitive Level: Application
Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
Nursing Process: Assessment


4. The nurse is orienting a new graduate. The nurse is reinforcing the importance of
standard precautions. Which of the following observations by the nurse would require
further education regarding standard precautions?

1. The graduate nurse understands to wash hands when entering and exiting
the client’s room.
2. The graduate nurse wears gloves when serving breakfast trays to various
clients.
3. The graduate nurse wears a gown, gloves, and goggles when suctioning a
client.
4. The graduate nurse leaves all supplies in the room of a client who is in
contact isolation.

Answer: 2

Rationale: The nurse must have an understanding of standard precautions. Prevention is
the most important measure to prevent nosocomial infections. Standard
precautions were published in 1996 that provide guidelines for the handling of
blood and other body fluids. These guidelines are used with all clients, regardless
of whether they have a known infectious disease. Standard precautions are used

, by all healthcare workers who have direct contact with clients or with their body
fluids. It is not necessary for the nurse to wear gloves while delivering food trays
to the client, because there is not contact with the client.

Cognitive Level: Application
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment
Nursing Process: Evaluation


5. The admitting department alerts the nurse on a medical–surgical unit that a client with
active tuberculosis (TB) is being admitted to the unit. Which type of isolation is
appropriate based on the client’s diagnosis?

1. Standard precautions
2. Airborne precautions
3. Droplet precautions
4. Contact precautions

Answer: 2

In addition to handwashing and standard precautions, the nature and spread of some
infectious diseases require that special techniques be used to protect uninfected clients
and workers. The client with pulmonary tuberculosis will be placed in airborne
precautions. The client should be placed in a private room with special ventilation that
does not allow air to circulate to general hospital ventilation; a mask or special filter
respirators will be used for everyone entering the room.

Cognitive Level: Application
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment
Nursing Process: Assessment


6. A client is receiving IV vancomycin for the treatment of Clostridium difficile. The
nurse understands that the client who develops flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension
during the infusion of vancomycin indicates:

1. Ototoxicity effect.
2. Superinfection.
3. Red man syndrome.
4. Hives.

Answer: 3

Rationale: Vancomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis, and is used for serious infections. It is
only effective against gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus aureus and

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