The Best Paramedic National Registry Review (FOR AUDIO USE)

The Best Paramedic National Registry Review (FOR AUDIO USE) Control center of the cell is the nucleus. chromosomes are made up of what and found where? chromosomes are made of DNA and protein, found in the nucleus. ribosomes are known for what and found where? in the rough e.r. and are where protein synthesis takes place using RNA. what is mRNA? A single strand copy of DNA that leaves the nucleus and is sent to the ribosomes. What is mitosis? mitosis is where chromosomes split to become pairs and create an identical cell in cell division. what is meiosis? a type of sexual cell division that results in four daughter cells each with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell. what is osmosis? movement of solvent from great concentration to low concentration. what is the difference between hypo and hyper tonic solutions? hypotonic solutions have low salt, so it forces water into cells and cause them to swell. hypertonic have high salt so it causes them to shrivel. D50 is what kind of solution? hypertonic. what are adipoecytes? cells that store fat What are endocrine glands? ductless glands that secrete hormones into capillaries. examples of endocrine glands are: pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, and pineal. what are exocrine glands? glands with ducts that secret fluids away from site of function. (ex: sweat, saliva, etc.) what is keratin? a "waterproof" protein used in the integumentary system. What is the stratum corneum? outermost layer of epidermis what is the stratum granulosum? The the stratum granulosum, also called the Granular layer, is very thin, Just below the outer most layer of skin. This is where keratin and lamellated granuoles accumulate. what are sebaceous glands? Sebaceous glands are glands that open into hair follicles, or directly onto surface. What are ceruminous glands? Modified sweat glands found only in auditory canal. What are apocrine glands? Mainly in the armpits and the groin area. Contains bit of cytoplasm from the secreting cells. The cell debris attracts bacteria. what organ in the GI tract contains both exocrine and endocrine glands? the pancreas What are the islets of Langerhans? cells in the pancreas that produce insulin. Islets of Langerhans are beta cells. what are alpha cells in the pancreas? produce glucagon to stimulate liver to make glucose. Just think, alpha cells do the work. Alpha cells stimulate the liver. what are beta cells in the pancreas? produce insulin that transports glucose from blood straight into the cells by increasing permeability. what does P.T.H. stand for and what does it do? parathyroid hormone, important for the maintenance of calcium and phosphate levels in blood. where is parathyroid hormone created? parathyroid gland how does PTH increase Calcium absorption while lowering phosphate in blood? PTH stimulates activation of vitamin D in the kidneys to reabsorb Calcium and excrete phosphate. What does calcitonin do and where is it produced? Calcitonin is produced in the thyroid gland. It decreases blood calcium levels by stimulated calcium absorption in bones. What does the adrenal medulla secrete? catecholamines and sym-path-o-mimetics, A.K.A. epinephrine and norepinephrine. what originally stimulates the adrenal medulla in the adrenal glands? the hypothalamus stimulates the adrenal gland. what part of the brain controls metabolism and blood temperature? Hypothalamus how much of cellular respiration is energy and how much is heat? throughout the whole process of cellular respiration, only 40% is usable energy, while 60% is heat. how much of the body's heat is produced by the liver and skeletal muscle? 20% what is the normal body temperature range? 96.5 - 99.5 Fahrenheit. (36 to 38 Celsius) what is the process of conduction? heat is transferred from hot object to cool object through direct touching. what is the process of radiation? heat is directly transferred from one object to another without touching and without heating an environment. what is positive feedback loop? The uncommon feedback loop that is also involved in normal function. Stimulated when a strange change is detected, such as a fever, contractions during labor, or blood clotting. a positive feedback is not stopped until the change stimulus is externally broken or resolved. what is a negative feedback loop? Negative feedback loop, is system that contains its own brake or control system, such as shivering or sweating dependent on external temperatures. What is the alimentary canal? the whole digestive track in which food passes through the body from mouth to anus. includes: esophagus, stomach, and intestines. what are the accessory organs? accessory organs are organs not in the alimentary canal. these are: liver, pancreas, and gallbladder. where is the duodenum? first part of the small intestine that sucks in bile from the gallbladder to break down fats. just think: both the small intestine and the gallbladder are a "duo" wearing denum. how long do red blood cells live for? 120 days Which cells do not have a nucleus? red blood cells do not have a nucleus. Where are red blood cells produced? bone marrow which blood type is the universal donor carrying ZERO foreign antigens? Oh-positive. which blood type is the universal receiver carrying both A and B antigens? A.B. what is stroke volume? the amount of blood ejected in one contraction. what is cardiac output? cardiac output is, heart rate, times stroke volume. Starling's Law says what? the bigger the preload, the bigger the ventricle stretch. coronary arteries feed the heart with blood during when? coronary arteries feed the heart during diastolly, when A.V. valves open. What happens in the heart during systole? during systole, ventricles contract, meaning when the AV valves are closed and the semi lunar valves are open. what is the biggest lymph node in the body? the spleen what organ has fixed microphages (that produce phagocytes)? the spleen what do phagocytes do? Detect foreign bodies and engulf them (phagocytosis) the spleen has fixed macrophages and fixed plasma cells. what do the fixed plasma cells in the spleen do? make antibodies. where are lymph nodules located? along lymphatic pathways at all mucous membranes, just beneath the epithelium layer. What is passive immunity? short term immunity using antibodies produced outside the body, as with a mother giving antibodies to child through breast milk. What is active immunity? the immunity that results from the production of antibodies from one's own immune system, in response to the presence of an antigen. What is acquired immunity? The result of already having had the disease, or receiving an inoculation against the disease what is a natural active immunity? When you become immune after catching a disease a vaccine is an example of what kind of immunity? artificial active immunity. Just think of an artificial robot athlete, getting a vaccination shot. Artificial active immunity. What is the formula for aerobic respiration? Glucose + Oxygen equals Carbon dioxide + Water + ATP + Heat Bone is made up of what two things? osteocytes and matrixes. ligaments do what? Ligaments connect bone to bone. To remember this, just think of a capital letter "L", in the word "ligament", being made of two bones laid side by side. what is acetylcholine? This is a primary neurotransmitter that transmits impulses across the synaptic cleft. what blocks acetylcholine? colinesterase. central nervous system is made up of what two components in the body? only the brain and spinal cord. the peripheral nervous system has what two types of functions? motor and sensory What is the somatic nervous system? voluntary motor function of peripheral nervous system. controls the body's skeletal muscles. What is the autonomic nervous system? part of motor functions in peripheral nervous system. controls involuntary actions, such as breathing, heartbeat, and digestion. what are the efferent and afferent neurons? neurons that are involved in the two functions of the peripheral nervous system. efferent neurons cause motor movements. afferent cause sensory relays. just think: it's the opposite of "affect", and "effect", grammatically. Where in the brain is the corpus callosum? 200 mL's of nerve fibers joining the two hemispheres of the brain. Where is CSF produced? capillary networks called the choroid plexus, located within the ventricles. C.S.F. is produced in the brain by using what fluid? blood plasma. what is the cochlea? inner ear structure containing the 3 canals involved in hearing. What is the sclera of the eye? the outermost layer. this is the white part of the eye, made of fibrous tissue. what is the cornea of the eye? the transparent, anterior part of the sclera. focuses light into the eye. what part of the eye turns light into electrical signals? the retina. what do rods do in the retina? detect light. Just think "lightning rod", since rods detect light. what do cones do in the retina? detect colors. Just remember, both start with the letter "c": Colors, and, Cones. koossmal breathing is your body's way to quickly try to fix what metabolic condition? metabolic acidosis. what are Biot's respirations? Rapid and deep respirations followed by 10 to 30 seconds of apnea, mostly associated with CNS injuries. What is Cullen's sign and what does it indicate? Periumbilical ecchymosis. Occurs in internal hemorrhage, pancreatitis, and ectopic pregnancy. diffusion is what? Movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration. this is how gases move. How do gases move? diffusion. what is the opposite of diffusion? active transport. what is the opposite of active transport? diffusion. what is cushings triad? Cushing's triad is used to help identify I.C.P. it is: hypertension, bradycardia, irregular breathing. what is Beck's triad? Beck's triad is used to help identify Cardiac Tamponade. It is: Hypotension, Muffled Heart Sounds, J.V.D. in E.C.G.'s, how long is a normal P.R. interval? A normal P.R. interval is, 0.20 or less. in E.C.G.'s, how long is a normal QRS complex? A normal Q.R.S. complex is, 0.08 to 0.12 what are the four properties of cardiac cells? automaticity, excitability, conductivity, contractility. what are the bipolar limb leads? The bipolar limb leads are, 1. 2. and 3. the axis of E.C.G. paper measures what? voltage or amplitude. peripheral chemoreceptors are located where? peripheral chemoreceptors are in the carotid and aortic bodies. Central chemoreceptors are located where? central chemoreceptors are in the medulla oblongata. what are the three parts of the meninges? Dura mater, aracknoid mater, pia mater. To remember the layers of the meninges, just think "DAP". what is the outermost layer of the meninges? dura mater. what are the four categories of pancreatitis? Metabolic, mechanical, vascular, infectious. a physical result of pancreatitis is what? obstruction from gallstones. Pancreatitis is caused by what in the field? alcohol abuse or gallstones. pancreatitis often leads to sepsis, shock, or multi organ failure. Most narrow part of the airway on a child is the: cricoid cartilage. the most narrow part of the airway on an adult is the: glottic opening. Poesterior pituitary, gland makes ADH and oxytocin. The anterior pituitary gland, produces what? Anterior pituitary gland makes ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH. basically, if it has an H in the acronym, it's produced in the anterior pituitary gland. Pulsus Paradoxus is what? Pulsus paradoxus is when the systolic B.P. or heart rate drops upon inhalation. This is seen in a severe asthma attack or pericardial tamponade, where hyperventilation blows up the lungs and puts pressure onto the heart disrupting blood flow. Pulsus Paradoxus is mainly seen when? In severe asthma or pericardial tamponade. How do you recognize partial thickness burns? Partial thickness burns have edema, blisters, and loss of sensitivity. Which bone fracture is always the highest concern and priority in a trauma patient? Femur fracture. Which medication can be effective in reducing cerebral edema and blood volume? Mannitol. How many liters of blood can be lost in a femur fracture? 1 to 1.5 liters of blood loss in femur fractures. How many liters of blood are in the human body? About 5 liters. What stage of shock presents with hypotension, tackycardia, and cool pale skin? Stage 3, Progressive Stage. Stage 3 Progressive Stage of shock is when most signs appear. What stage of shock is irreversible? Stage 4 Refractory. Stage 4 Refractory is when the shock is irreversible. How many liters of blood are lost in the Progressive stage of shock, stage three, when signs start to appear? In stage three progressive shock, a patient will start to be hypotensive, tacky, and altered. This happens with 1.5 to 2 liters of blood loss. What are the signs of stage 2 of shock? Stage two of shock will present with mild signs, such as a slightly higher heart rate and faster than normal breathing rates. Stage two of shock is still stable, only having up to 1.5 liters of blood lost. How much blood can be lost before a person starts to be altered? A person can lose up to 1.5 liters of blood before showing major signs of shock. What type of radio system do most E.M.S. agencies use to communicate? Most E.M.S. agencies use a Multiplex Mode Radio System. What is always an average E.T. tube size range for most adults? 7.5 to 8.5 What is dysphagia? Difficulty swallowing Patients with untreated Grave's Disease could present with a critical condition called Thyrotoxic Crises. What is a Thyrotoxic Crises? Thyrotoxic Crises, or Thyroid Storm, is when the metabolism becomes uncontrolled, leaving a patient with a fever, tacky, hypertensive, and with an irregular heart beat. What is thrombocytopenia? low platelet count, causing a diffuse petechial rash. low platelets from thrombocytopenia cause capillaries all over the body to burst. The Parkland Formula is used to give lactated ringers to burn patients. What is the formula? 4 milliliters, times burned percentage number, times patient's weight. Give the first half within eight hours. What is the parkland formula? 4 milliliters, times burned percentage NUMBER, times patient's weight. Give first half in first eight hours. (ex: 4 mL x 40 [%] x 60 [kg] = Answer mL /2 = First 8hr) How do you quickly find kilograms of pounds? Divide by two, and then MINUS ten percent of the new halved answer. How much of the Earth's atmosphere is Nitrogen? 79%. How much of the Earth's atmosphere is Oxygen? 21%. The baroreceptors in the aortic arch, and the carotid sinuses, are sensitive to what in the blood? The aortic arch and carotid sinuses sense changes in arterial perfusion pressure. What is arterial perfusion pressure? Arterial perfusion pressure is the difference read between the diastolic aorta pressure and the diastolic left ventricle pressure. The only situations you should revert to cardioversion or pacing is when the patient is presenting how? Hemodynamically unstable. A patient with H.I.V. would present how? Coughing, fever, thin, and with purple blotches on rear. What is Karposi Sarcoma? Malignant skin tumors that look like purple blotches closely associated with AIDS. What is eye-soimmunization? Occurs in subsequent pregnancies. eye-soimmunization, or R.h. disease, is the formation of maternal antibodies that pass through placenta into fetal circulation and destroy the baby's red blood cells. (causing Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn) When do you attach an Oxygen Humidifier? To a nasal cannula when in long transports. O2 Humidifer keeps the nose from drying up. What is Jump START triage? Jump START triage is a system used to triage patients younger than 8 or under 50 kilograms. In Jump START triage with children, if a child is apneic, what do you do next? Check for pulse. If no pulse, give five rescue breaths. Reassess, then tag as deceased if no pulse after rescue breaths. How can you check a patient's oxygen saturation without a pulse ox? Look for pinkness in their mucus membranes. What kind of oxygen mask is indicated for COPD patients that rely on a hypoxic drive to breathe? Venturi Mask What radio frequencies do cell phones use? Frequencies in the 800 megahertz. How do you confirm placement of an NG tube? Auscultate epigastric region while pushing 20 to 30 milliliters of air down tube. What are signs of bronchitis? Cyanosis around lips and nail beds, productive cough, and ronck-eye in lungs bilaterally. Where do rales or crackles occur in the lungs? In the alveoli. Where does ronck-eye or wheezing occur in the lungs? In the bronck-eye stems. Ronck-eye occurs due to what? inflammatory response in the bronck-eye, causing wheezing. Which coronary artery gives blood to the septal wall? The left main coronary artery. Which coronary artery gives blood to the left ventricle? The Left Anterior Descending What is a target blood pressure in fluid administration for a patient in hypovolemic shock? Fluid should be administered to reach a target systolic of 90 in hypovolemic shock. What is nausea and bruising around the umbilicus indicative of in a trauma patient? suspected pancreatic hemorrhage. What is the drug of choice for sedation in R.S.I. for hypotensive patients? Ketamine. What is your initial dose of Diltiazem? 0.25 milligrams per kilogram, slow push. What can be a replacement of adenosine in a stable patient? A calcium channel blocker. What are the major differences between Croup and Epiglotitis? Croup has a barking cough with a slow onset. Epiglottis has a high fever with an acute onset. What drug can be given second to Epi in anaphylaxis in order to raise the blood pressure? Cimmettidine