BIO 160 PRACTICE FINAL EXAM 2022

BIO PRACTICE FINAL EXAM 2022 Correctly sequence the following events of meiosis: I. Interkinesis II. Synapsis and crossing over III. Separation of homologous chromosomes IV. Separation of sister chromatids V. Haploid daughter cells formed a. I II III IV V b. II IV III I V c. II III I IV V d. III II I IV V 2. Compare and Contrast mitosis and meiosis. Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding BOTH of them? I. Only mitosis results in identical daughter cells II. Mitosis results in 4 daughter cells, Meiosis 1 results in 2 III. Both involve the separation of homologous chromosomes IV. Both involve the separation of sister chromatids a. II and III b. I and II c. I and IV d. I, II and III 3. Which of the following processes of cellular respiration directly results in the production of CO2? I. Glycolysis II. Pyruvate Oxidation III. Citric Acid Cycle IV. Oxidative Phosphorylation a. I online b. I, II, and III c. II and III d. I, II, III, and IV 4. Correctly sequence the following of the cell cycle; I. Anaphase II. Prophase III. Metaphase IV. G2 V. S phase a. III II IV V I b. II IV III I V c. IV V II III I d. V IV II III I 5. A plant cell with 2n number of 16 chromosomes goes through mitosis. What is the ploidy AND the number of chromosomes in daughter cells? a. Diploid, 16 b. Diploid, 32 c. Haploid, 8 d. Haploid, 16 6. A plant cell with a n= 32 chromosomes and goes through mitosis. What is the ploidy AND the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells? a. Diploid, 32 b. Haploid,8, c. Diploid, 16 d. Haploid, 32 **7. Identify the chromosome structure. W is a and Y is . a. Kinetochores, chromatids b. Chromatids, Chromosomes c. Centromere, chromatids d. Chromatids, Kinetochores 8. Assume that in a pea plant, the round pea (R) is dominant to the wrinkled pea (r). If you cross a homozygous round pea plant with a wrinkled pea plant, what proportion of the progeny will be heterozygous? a. All b. ½ c. ¼ d. ¾ 9. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. If a woman who is homozygous dominant and a man with hemophilia have children, which of the following is true about their children? The saughtes will and the sons will . a. all not have hemophilia; all be carriers b. all be carriers; all not have hemophilia c. all have hemophilia; all be carriers d. Either be carriers or have hemophilia; all not have hemophilia 10. A mother's genotype is Aa and Father’s genotype is aa. What is the probability that an offspring will be homozygous recessive? a. 25% b. 50% c. 100% d. 0% 11. Hypothesis: which stage of the cell cycle would be interrupted by a drug that prevents DNA replication. a. Metaphase. b. G1 c. S phase d. Prophase 12. A cell in 2n = 20 in G1. What is the ploidy and number of chromosomes of each cell in telophase I? a. Haploid, 10 b. Haploid, 20 c. Diploid, 20 d. Diploid, 10 13. A mother and father's genotype for an inheritable trait is Ee. What is the probability that an offspring will be heterozygous? a. 0% b. 50% c. 100% d. 25% 14. CC Meiosis I and II. Which of the following processes occur during BOTH of them? I. Cytokinesis II. Separation of sister chromatids III. Reduction in ploidy IV. Segregation of homologous chromosomes V. Crossing over a. III, V and V b. I only c. II and V d. I and III 15. CC D A structure. A reaction which hydrolyzes phosphodiester linkages would cleave a DNA molecule between a phosphate group and: a. Another phosphate group b. The 5’ carbon of a purine or pyrimidine c. The 3’ carbon of a purine or pyrimidine d. The 3’ carbon of a purine or pyrimidine e. The 3’ carbon of deoxyribose 16. Which of the following statements correctly describes the operation of DNA polymerase? I. adds to 3’hyroxyl group II. Joins Okazaki fragments III. Does not require a primer IV. Catalyzes formation of phosphodiester bonds a. II and IV b. I and IV c. III and IV d. I and II 17. Below is a sequence of template DNA. What is the sequence of mRNA synthesized at this location? 3’ T A G C T C 5’ a. 3’ A U C G A G 5’ b. 3’ U A G C U C 5’ c. 5’ U A G C U C 3’ d. 5’ A U C G A G 3’ 18) Which of the following are true about the cell cycle(mitosis) I.Crossing Over occurs II. Maintains Ploidy III.Identical offspring iV.Non-identical offspring A.I,II B.I,II,III C.I,III D.II,III 19) Hypothesize the effect of a gene mutation that prevents microtubules from separating chromosomes during ,it would A. Prophase,prevent chromosomes from lining up during metaphase B. Metaphase, prevent chromosomes from lining up C.Prophase, prevent the separation of the cell D.Metaphase, allow for more cell division 20) SEQ mitosis and meiosis. Identify which of the following statements is/are true regarding sister chromatids. I. They are formed prior to mitosis II. They change the ploidy of the cell III. They change the mass of the cell a. II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II only 21) Batman has been exposed to a deadly toxin created by the joker that prevents his natural white blood cells from replicating. Which of the following steps would be affected FIRST in the process of creating new white blood cells? A. Nuclear Envelope reforming B. Nucleus breaking down C. Sister chromatids moving to opposite poles D. Chromosomes start to condense 22) A new pet dog created by Kord industries has 80 chromosomes in its blood cells. During the cell cycle of its blood cells its chromosome number is during interphase, and during mitosis. A.40,80 B.80,160 C.80,80 D.40,40 23) The Riddler will let you enter his lair to face him if you can figure out the phase of the cell cycle he is referencing… I am in preparation for the big show, final checks before here we go. The shortest of them all and my DNA is in a dispensed state. Who am I, tell me before it’s too late A.S Phase B. M Phase C. Prophase D.G2 24) A 2n cell has 10 chromosomes, what is the ploidy and # of chromosomes after prophase during mitosis. A. Diploid, 10 B. Haploid,10 C. Diploid,5 D. Haploid, 20 E. Haploid, 5 25) A cell is diploid and has 32 chromosomes in G1, what is the ploidy and the number of daughter cells after mitosis? A.n=32 B.2n=32 C.2n=64 D.n=64 E.n=8 26) produces 4 daughter cells and is a process meant to create A.Meiosis,genetically diverse offspring B.Mitosis, carbon copies C.Mitosis, genetically diverse offspring D.Meiosis, carbon copies 27) Cadmus labs has manufactured super babies, one has super strength and the other has telepathy. If the trait for strength is dominant and telepathy is recessive, what are the possible genotypes of the parents? I. Ss II. SS III. ss IV. St A. I B. I,II C. iii,IV D. I,III 28) Albinism is caused by a recessive autosomal allele. The offspring of a marriage between two normally pigmented persons is an albino. What is the genotype of the albino child? You can use any letter. A. AA B. aa C. Aa D. None of the above 29) Which of the following is NOT why mendel used peas A. reproduce a lot B. cheap C. reproduced slowly enough for observation D. clearly identifiable traits 30. CC PCR and DNA replication. Which occurs in PCR only. a. Hydrogen bonding between complementary nucleotides b. Synthesis of DNa in 5’ to 3’ direction c. Unwinding of the DNA helix by helicase d. Binding of a DNA primer to the template 31. SEQ and HD DNA sequencing. Hypothesize the effects of the absence of ddNTP for cytosine during dideoxy DNA sequencing. I. The resulting spectorgem will not show any sequences ending in a cytosine II. The resulting spectrogram will show only short DNA fragments III. Dna elongation will not occur IV. The resulting spectrogem will be unaffected A. IV only B. II and IV C. I only D. II and III 32. SEQ and HD eukaryotic translation. Hypothesize the most likely effects of mutation that results in the absence of the start codon. a. Premature translation termination; shorter polypeptide b. Premature transcription termination; shorter mRNA c. No translation initiation; no polypeptide d. No transcription initiation; no mRNA 33. SEQ the cell cycle. Identify in which of the Interphase subphases does the DNA replicate. a. M phase b. S phase c. G2 Phase d. G1 phase 34. Hypothesize the most likely effect of a drug that inhibits the activator protein involved in positive regulation of the lac operon. a. High levels of lac expression b. Complete inhibition of the operon. c. Only a low level of transcription d. No mRNa transcription 35. SEQ eukaryotic translation. Which of the following statements about translation are TRUE? I. RNA polymerase elongates mRNA during translation II. mRNA and tRNA with ribosomes III. OCCure in the nucleus IV. A polypeptide is synthesized A. II and IV B. I and II C. I and IV D. II and III 36. SEQ and HD lac operon. Hypothesis the most likely result of mutation to the lac operon CAp binding site that prevents CAP binding a. High lac expression when both glucose and lactose are absent b. Low lac expression when glucose is absent and lactose is present c. Low lac expression when both glucose and lactose are absent d. No lac expression when both glucose and lactose are present/. 37. SEQ eukaryotic translation. Which of the following is TRUE about tRNA? a. Usually single-stranded in cells b. HAs a poly-A tail and a cap c. Its codon binds to the mRNA anti-codon d. Binds an amino acid at the 5’ end 38. SEQ mitosis. Identify which of the following occurs during interphase. I. DNa replicates II. Sister chromatids form III. CEllular growth IV. Spindle fibers form a. I and II b. I and IV c. I,II, and III d. II and IV 39. Apply Pedigree Analysis. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition that results in abnormal secretion of fluids. Particularly in the lungs of those affected. What is the probability that a child will have cystic fibrosis if one parent expresses cystic fibrosis and other parents are heterozygous? a. 0.25 b. 0.50 c. 0 d. 0.75 40. DNA structure. A reaction that hydrolyzes a phosphodiester bond would clean a DNA molecule between a phosphate group and: a. Another phosphate group b. The 3’ carbon of deoxyribose c. The 3’ carbon of pure or pyrimidine d. The 5’ carbon of purine or pyrimidine. 41. CC autosomal recessive and dominant disorders. For an individual to express an autosomal recessive trait. Identity what must be TRUE? a. The individual has a parent who expresses the recessive trait. b. The individual is heterozygous for the trait. c. The individual receives an allele of the trait from one parent only. d. Both parents have at least one allele for the trait. 42. CC DNA structure. If you isolate a DNA molecule that is 20% adenine, what is the percentage of guanine in your sample? a. 40% b. 60% c. 20% d. 30% 43. Eye color in fruit flies is X-linked sex linked. A red eyed heterozygous female is crossed with a red eyed male. What % of their offspring are red-eyed and what % of males are red eyes? a. 100%, 50% b. 75%, 50% c. 75%, 25% d. 25%,25% 44. A carrier female crossed with a colorblind male. Determine the potential offspring. What percentage of the offspring will be color blind and a male? a. 50% b. 0% c. 25% d. 75% 45. Identify which of the following human karyotypes is/are the result of nondisjunction. I. 46,XY II. 47,XYY III. 45,X0 IV. 46,XX a. I and II b. I,II and III c. II and III d. II and IV 46. Apply Hardy Weinberg equations: The flower color yellow is dominant over purple.. In a population of plants, 51% have yellow flowers. What is the frequency of the recessive allele? a. 0.70 b. 0.51 c. 0.35 d. 0.49 47. Apply Hardy Weinberg equations: The allele frequencies in a population are: G=0.8 and g=0.2 a. GG = 0.04, Gg = 0.32, gg=0.64 b. GG =0.64, Gg = 0.32, gg = 0.04 c. Gg= 0.64, Gg = 0.32, gg =0.04 d. GG = 0.04, Gg =0.24, gg = 0.64 48. CC evolutionary mechanism. Which evolutionary mechanism it adopts and maintains favorable genotypes? a. Gene FLow b. Natural selection c. Nonrandom mating d. Genetic drift 49. Seq. Transcription. Correctly place the following steps of eukaryotic gene expression from first to last: I. mRNA processing II. Post-translational modifications III. RNa polymerase synthesizes RNA IV. DNA double helix unwinds a. IV→ I → III → II b. III → IV → I → II c. II → IV → III → I d. IV→ III → I → II 50. SEQ. mitosis. Which of the following describes an animal cell during G2? I. The nuclear membrane is broken down II. There is very little metabolic activity III. It is preparing for Prophase IV. It has double the amount of DNA as in G1 a. I and II b. III and IV c. II and III d. II and IV 51. ID Hardy Weinberg Components. Which of the following are reminders for Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium? I. NO mutation II. Random mating III. Natural selection IV. Gene flow a. I and IV b. I and II c. I and III d. I, III and IV 52. Apply Hardy Weinberg equation. The allele frequencies in a population are: G = 0.4 and g=0.6. Predict the genotype frequencies using the Hardy-Weinberg equation. a. GG = 0.20, Gg = 0.50, gg=0.30 b. GG =0.26, Gg = 0.48, gg = 0.16 c. Gg= 0.16, Gg = 0.48, gg =0.36 d. GG = 0.20, Gg =0.60, gg = 0.30 53. CC reproductive isolation mechanism. Reduced hybrid viability and hybrid breakdown are: a. Postzygotic barriers b. Heterozygotic Barriers c. Hemi Zygotic barriers d. Prezygotic barriers 54. CC eukaryotic and prokaryotic gene expression. Identify components shared by BOTH. I. mRNA splicing II. Transcription takes place in the nucleus III. Translation can take place on ribosome in the cytoplasm IV. RNA is transcribed by RNA Polymerase. a. II, III, and IV b. I and II c. I, III and IV d. III and IV 55. Seq. Meiosis. A cell with ploidy 2n =24 enters meiosis. What is the ploidy of each daughter cell after meiosis II a. n=24 b. 2n =24 c. 2n=12 d. n=12 56. Respiration. Put the following steps of cellular respiration in the correct sequence: I. Oxidative phosphorylation II. Glycolysis III. Pyruvate oxidation IV. Citric acid cycle a. IV → II → I → III b. II → IV → III → I c. II → III → IV → I d. I → III → IV → II 57. Photosynthesis. Put the Following steps of Photosynthesis in the correct sequences: I. PSII II. Calvin Cycle III. PSI IV. ATP synthesis a. I → IV → III → II b. III → I → IV → II c. III → IV → I → II d. I → II → III → IV 58. Correctly sequence the pathway of energy through the following components of cellular respiration starting with glucose. I. Proton gradient II. Glucose III. NADH IV. Electron transport chain V. ATP a. II – III – I – IV – V b. II – III – IV – I – V c. II – IV – V – III – I d. II – III – I – V – IV 60. Correctly sequences the pathway of energy through the following component of photosynthesis starting with light. I. G3P II. e- in PSI III. PGA IV. NADPH V. Photon a. V – II – IV – I – III b. V – IV – III – II – I c. V – I – II – III – IV d. V – II – IV – III – I 61. Sequence the process of cellular respiration. Which of the following molecules is OXIDIZED during cellular respiration? a. Carbon dioxide b. NADP+ c. Glucose d. ATP 62. CC Photosynthesis and CR. Which of the following statements are CORRECT? I. Water is reduced during cellular respiration II. Glucose is reduced during CR III. Carbon dioxide is reduced during photosynthesis IV. Water is oxidized during photosynthesis a. I and III b. II and IV c. III and IV d. I and II 63. Which statements correctly describe ATP? a. ATP hydrolysis often couples to exergonic reactions b. Contains 4 Phosphate groups c. Stores energy in bonds between phosphate groups d. ATP hydrolysis is an endergonic reaction 64. CC PHS and CR. Which of the following statements are correct? I. FADH2 is involved in respiration, but not in photosynthesis II. Respiration only happens in animal cells III. Carbon dioxide is reduced during photosynthesis IV. Carbon dioxide is oxidized during respiration a. II and III b. I, III, and IV c. I and III d. I, II and III 65. Seq evolution by natural selection. Identify if the following is a component of Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection I. Individuals evolve to drive selection process II. Environment drives the selection process III. Evolutionary Fitness IV. Descent with modification a. II and IV b. II, III and IV c. II only d. I and II 66. CC idea of Lamarck and Darwin. Identify which of the following are ideas shared by both. I. Natural process explained the diversity of life on Earth II. Evolution happens to individuals III. Changes that occurred in individuals were passed to offspring IV. Phenotypic variation was required for evolution to occur a. II and III b. III and IV c. I only d. I, III, and IV 67. Seq evolution by natural selection. Identify which of the following statements are TRUE. I. Population, rather than individuals evolve II. Evolution required uniform phenotypes III. Evolution involves differential reproductive success IV. Evolution results in individuals evolving via acquired traits a. I and III b. I and IV c. II, III and IV d. I, II and III 68. CC types of phylogenetic groups. A group that included distantly related species and their most recent common ancestor is: a. Paraphyletic b. Polyphyletic c. Monophyletic d. Monophyletic 69. CC types of learning. A pet rabbit loves the lettuce that is kept in an old squeaky refrigerator. Every time a squeaky door opens in the house, the rabbit runs from its cage and waits in front of the kitchen counter anticipating a lettuce leaf. What term best applies to this behavior? a. Imprinting b. Classical conditioning c. Sign Stimulus d. Cognition 70. Seq respiration. Identify the location of the electron transport chain in eukaryotic cells a. Inner mitochondrial membrane b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Outer mitochondrial membrane d. Plasma membrane 71. CC PHS and CR. Which of the following are true regarding energy flow in ecosystems? I. Photosynthesis utilizes light energy as an input. II. Cellular respiration utilizes products of photosynthesis as inputs. III. Heat energy is used to create ATP. IV. Chemical energy is produced by photosynthesis. a. I, II and III b. II and III c. III and IV d. I, II and IV 70. CC types of traits. Humans, cats, whales and bats share the same type of forelimb bones. Which term describes this similarity? a. Biodiversity b. Homology c. Analogous structures d. Vestigial structures 71. CC r and K-selected species. Compared to K-selected species, r-selected species generally: I. Exhibit more parental care. II. Have longer lifespan III. Have faster population growth IV. Take more time to reach maturity. a. III only b. II and III c. I and II d. I and IV 72. CC types of interactions. Which of the following is/are the examples of predation? I. Two different species of birds eat the same food source from different part of the tree II. A bird eats butterflies that camouflage into the tree bark III. Two kangaroos attempt to mate with the same female IV. A honey bee gathers nectar while simultaneously pollinating the flower. a. I and IV b. III ONLY c. I and III d. II ONLY 73. SEQ energy flow in an ecosystem. Identify which of the following is an example of primary producer: a. Phytoplankton utilizes the sun to make energy b. Falcons consume mice c. Mice consumes grass d. Zooplankton consumes photosynthetic diatoms 74. CC types of membrane transport. Which of the following are examples of passive transport? I. Facilitated diffusion II. Phagocytosis III. Endocytosis IV. Simple diffusion a. I and II b. I and IV c. I and III d. II and III 75. CC types of endocytosis. How do receptor-mediated endocytosis and pinocytosis differ? I. Pinocytosis in nonspecific II. Only receptor-mediated endocytosis involves specific receptors III. Only pinocytosis results in the formation of a vesicle IV. Pinocytosis takes in many small molecules; receptor mediated endocytosis takes in random particles. a. II and III b. I and II c. II and IV d. I and III 76. CC types of interactions. Which of the following are examples of competition? I. Two different types species of bird eat the same food source from the same tree species. II. A butterfly camouflages into tree bark III. Two kangaroos attempt to mate with the same female IV. A Honeybee Gathers nectar while simultaneously pollinating the flower. a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. II and IV 78. Seq energy flow in an ecosystem. Identify which of the following is an example of an primary consumer: a. Phytoplankton utilizes the sum to make energy b. Rates consume small insects c. Zooplankton consumes photosynthetic diatoms d. Falcons consume mice 79. CC types of membrane transport. Which of the following are examples of active transport? I. Facilitated diffusion II. Phagocytosis III. Endocytosis IV. Simple diffusion a. I and II b. I and IV c. II and III d. II and III 80. CC types of endocytosis. Which are truer for receptor-mediated endocytosis and phagocytosis I. Only receptor-mediated endocytosis is specific II. Phagocytosis takes in large solid particles III. Only pinocytosis results in the formation of a vesicle IV. Neither is a form of active transport a. II and III b. I and III c. II and IV d. I and II 81. In rabbits the allele for soft ears. (E) is dominant and the allele for rough ears (e) is recessive. In a population of 100 rabbits 9% of the rabbits have rough ears. What is the percentage of soft eared homozygous dominant rabbits? a. 0.09 b. 0.30 c. 0.97 d. 0.49 82. Identify which of the following is an example of ultimate cause for a behavior? a. My birds bites my hand when I startle her b. A dog barks when her water bowl is empty c. Mother ducks who circle their ducklings in the lake have more surviving ducklings. d. Hearing the kettle whistle make me think of loverly hot cup of tea 83. Rabbits were part of a larger population, but the local humans have built a highway and now this population if rabbits are unable to return to breed with their original population. Identify which of the following correctly describes what happened to these rabbits. a. They underwent natural selection to become a new population b. They have undergone a bottleneck effect c. They have undergone the founder effect. d. The rabbit’s movements was due to genetic drift 84. Two species of starfish live on the coast of northern California. Once a species is large and lives at high tide holding onto large rocks. The other species is small and only lives in tiny isolated tick pools. From this description, which of the following could be a mechanism of prezygotic reproductive isolation separating these two species? a. Reduced hybrid fertility b. Gametic isolation c. Hybrid breakdown d. Habitat isolation 85. A small group of ducks is blown to a remote island and is therefore separated from the main population. Many generations pass and the remote island ducks ultimately become a new species. What types of speciation occurred in above scenario I. Sympatric II. Allopatric III. Founder effect a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. III only 86. There is a population of 800 ducks. This year the average ducks hatches 2 cicks and 200 ducks die. Which of the following is true about this population of ducks? I. At the end of this year there will be 2200 ducks in population II. The population is growing III. The population is shrinking IV. At the end of this year there will be 602 ducks in the population a. I and II b. II only c. III only d. III and IV 87. Mice are mammals and reach maturity within 6-8 weeks at birth. Litters range from 2-12 pups and female mice can produce a new little approximately every 7-8 weeks. Which of the following statements is true about mice. Mice are: I. R selected II. K selected III. Iteroparous IV. Semelparous a. IV only b. II only c. I only d. I and II 88. The coral snake is a highly enormous snake found in the Southern United States. Identify what must be true of a kind snake to be considered a Batesian mimic of the coral snake? The kind snake must be: a. Venomous b. Identical to the coral snake c. Non-venomous d. a predator 89. What is the main reservoir for nitrogen? a. Respiration of terrestrial nitrogen b. N2 gas in the atmosphere c. leaching/runoff d. Bound to soil particles 90. On a tree 5 species of birds live in the same habitat at the same time but they feed on caterpillars in different parts of the tree. This is an example of: a. Character displacement b. Resource partitioning c. Limiting resources d. Homology