NUR 3069 MATERNITY PED FINAL TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

NUR 3069 MATERNITY PED FINAL TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Because of the effect of cyclic ovarian changes on the breast, the best time for breast self- examination (BSE) is: a. 5 to 7 days after menses ceases. c. Midmenstrual cycle. b. Day 1 of the endometrial cycle. d. Any time during a shower or bath. ANS: A The physiologic alterations in breast size and activity reach their minimal level about 5 to 7 days after menstruation stops. All women should perform BSE during this phase of the menstrual cycle. 6. Menstruation is periodic uterine bleeding: a. That occurs every 28 days. b. In which the entire uterine lining is shed. c. That is regulated by ovarian hormones. d. That leads to fertilization. ANS: C Menstruation is periodic uterine bleeding that is controlled by a feedback system involving three cycles: endometrial, hypothalamic-pituitary, and ovarian. The average length of a menstrual cycle is 28 days, but variations are normal. During the endometrial cycle, the functional two thirds of the endometrium is shed. Lack of fertilization leads to menstruation. 22. The stimulated release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone is part of the: a. Menstrual cycle. c. Ovarian cycle. b. Endometrial cycle. d. Hypothalamic-pituitary cycle. ANS: D The menstrual, endometrial, and ovarian cycles are interconnected. However, the cyclic release of hormones is the function of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands. 3.A couple comes in for an infertility workup, having attempted to get pregnant for 2 years. The woman, 37, has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy. The man has fathered two children from a previous marriage and had a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago. The man has had two normal semen analyses, but the sperm seem to be clumped together. What additional test is needed? a. Testicular biopsy b. Antisperm antibodies c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level d. Examination for testicular infection ANS: C The woman has irregular menstrual cycles. The scenario does not indicate that she has had any testing related to this irregularity. Hormone analysis is performed to assess endocrine function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis when menstrual cycles are absent or irregular. Determination of blood levels of prolactin, FSH, luteinizing hormone (LH), estradiol, progesterone, and thyroid hormones may be necessary to diagnose the cause of irregular menstrual cycles. A testicular biopsy would be indicated only in cases of azoospermia (no sperm cells) or severe oligospermia (low number of sperm cells). Antisperm antibodies are produced by a man against his own sperm. This is unlikely to be the case here because the man has already produced children. Examination for testicular infection would be done before semen analysis. Infection would affect spermatogenesis. 1. The two primary functions of the ovary are: a. Normal female development and sex hormone release. b. Ovulation and internal pelvic support. c. Sexual response and ovulation. d. Ovulation and hormone production. ANS: D The two functions of the ovaries are ovulation and hormone production. The presence of ovaries does not guarantee normal female development. The ovaries produce estrogen, progesterone, and androgen. Ovulation is the release of a mature ovum from the ovary; the ovaries are not responsible for internal pelvic support. Sexual response is a feedback mechanism involving the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, and the ovaries. Ovulation does occur in the ovaries. 19. The female reproductive organ(s) responsible for cyclic menstruation is/are the: a. Uterus. c. Vaginal vestibule. b. Ovaries. d. Urethra. ANS: A The uterus is responsible for cyclic menstruation. It also houses and nourishes the fertilized ovum and the fetus. The ovaries are responsible for ovulation and production of estrogen; the uterus is responsible for cyclic menstruation. The vaginal vestibule is an external organ that has openings to the urethra and vagina; the uterus is responsible for cyclic menstruation. The urethra is not a reproductive organ, although it is found in the area. 11. The nurse guides a woman to the examination room and asks her to remove her clothes and put on an examination gown with the front open. The woman states, “I have special undergarments that I do not remove for religious reasons.” The most appropriate response from the nurse would be: a. “You can’t have an examination without removing all your clothes.” b. “I’ll ask the doctor to modify the examination.” c. “Tell me about your undergarments. I’ll explain the examination procedure, and then we can discuss how you can have your examination comfortably.” d. “What? I’ve never heard of such a thing! That sounds different and strange.” ANS: C This statement reflects cultural competence by the nurse and shows respect for the woman’s religious practices. The nurse must respect the rich and unique qualities that cultural diversity brings to individuals. In recognizing the value of these differences, the nurse can modify the plan of care to meet the needs of each woman. 17.A woman who is 6 months pregnant has sought medical attention, saying she fell down the stairs. What scenario would cause an emergency department nurse to suspect that the woman has been a victim of intimate partner violence (IPV)? a. The woman and her partner are having an argument that is loud and hostile. b. The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in different stages of healing. c. Examination reveals a fractured arm and fresh bruises. d. She avoids making eye contact and is hesitant to answer questions. ANS: B The patient may have multiple injuries in various stages of healing that indicates a pattern of violence. An argument is not always an indication of battering. A fractured arm and fresh bruises could be caused by the reported fall and doesn’t necessarily indicate IPV. . It is normal for the woman to have a flat affect. 27.A patient at 24 weeks of gestation says she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. The nurse will counsel her to eliminate all alcohol intake because: a. A daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism. b. She will be at risk for abusing other substances as well. c. The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth. d. The fetus is at risk for multiple organ anomalies. ANS: C There is no period during pregnancy when it is safe to consume alcohol. The documented effects of alcohol consumption during pregnancy include mental retardation, learning disabilities, high activity level, and short attention span. The brain grows most rapidly in the third trimester and is vulnerable to alcohol exposure during this time. Abuse of other substances has not been linked to alcohol use. 35. Despite warnings, prenatal exposure to alcohol continues to exceed by far exposure to illicit drugs. A diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is made when there are visible markers in each of three categories. Which is category is not associated with a diagnosis of FAS? a. Respiratory conditions c. CNS abnormality b. Impaired growth d. Craniofacial dysmorphologies ANS: A Respiratory difficulties are not a category of conditions that are related to FAS. Abnormalities related to FAS include organ deformities, genital malformations, and kidney and urinary defects. Impaired growth is a visible marker for FAS. CNS abnormalities with neurologic and intellectual impairments are categories used to assist in the diagnosis of FAS. An infant with FAS manifests at least two craniofacial abnormalities, such as microcephaly, short palpebral fissures, poorly developed philtrum, thin upper lip, or flattening of the maxilla. 1.A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant. The following information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She admits to having used cocaine “several times” during the past year and drinks alcohol occasionally. Her blood pressure (BP) is 108/70 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 72 beats/min, and her respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min. The family history is positive for diabetes mellitus and cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD). Which characteristics place the woman in a high risk category? a. Blood pressure, age, BMI b. Drug/alcohol use, age, family history c. Family history, blood pressure, BMI d. Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse ANS: D Her family history of NTD, low BMI, and substance abuse all are high risk factors of pregnancy. The woman’s BP is normal, and her age does not put her at risk. Her BMI is low and may indicate poor nutritional status, which would be a high risk. The woman’s drug/alcohol use and family history put her in a high risk category, but her age does not. The woman’s family history puts her in a high risk category. Her BMI is low and may indicate poor nutritional status, which would be high risk. Her BP is normal. 26.A pregnant woman presents in labor at term, having had no prenatal care. After birth her infant is noted to be small for gestational age with small eyes and a thin upper lip. The infant also is microcephalic. On the basis of her infant’s physical findings, this woman should be questioned about her use of which substance during pregnancy? a. Alcohol c. Heroin b. Cocaine d. Marijuana ANS: A The description of the infant suggests fetal alcohol syndrome, which is consistent with maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Fetal brain, kidney, and urogenital system malformations have been associated with maternal cocaine ingestions. Heroin use in pregnancy frequently results in intrauterine growth restriction. The infant may have a shrill cry and sleep cycle disturbances and present with poor feeding, tachypnea, vomiting, diarrhea, hypothermia or hyperthermia, and sweating. Studies have found a higher incidence of meconium staining in infants born of mothers who used marijuana during pregnancy. 29. The abuse of which of the following substances during pregnancy is the leading cause of cognitive impairment in the United States? a. Alcohol c. Marijuana b. Tobacco d. Heroin ANS: A Alcohol abuse during pregnancy is recognized as one of the leading causes of cognitive impairment in the United States. 37. In caring for the mother who has abused (or is abusing) alcohol and for her infant, nurses should be aware that: a. The pattern of growth restriction of the fetus begun in prenatal life is halted after birth, and normal growth takes over. b. Two thirds of newborns with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) are boys. c. Alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders not sufficient to meet FAS criteria (learning disabilities, speech and language problems) are often not detected until the child goes to school. d. Both the distinctive facial features of the FAS infant and the diminished mental capacities tend toward normal over time. ANS: C Some learning problems do not become evident until the child is at school. The pattern of growth restriction persists after birth. Two thirds of newborns with FAS are girls. Although the distinctive facial features of the FAS infant tend to become less evident, the mental capacities never become normal. 6. When caring for a newborn with Down syndrome, the nurse should be aware that the most common congenital anomaly associated with Down syndrome is: a. Hypospadias. c. Congenital heart disease. b. Pyloric stenosis. d. Congenital hip dysplasia. ANS: C Congenital heart malformations, primarily septal defects, are very common congenital anomalies in Down syndrome. Hypospadias, pyloric stenosis, and congenital hip dysplasia are not frequent congenital anomalies associated with Down syndrome. 7. Mark, a 9-year-old with Down syndrome, is mainstreamed into a regular third-grade class for part of the school day. His mother asks the school nurse about programs such as Cub Scouts that he might join. The nurse’s recommendation should be based on knowing that: a. Programs such as Cub Scouts are inappropriate for children who are cognitively impaired. b. Children with Down syndrome have the same need for socialization as other children. c. Children with Down syndrome socialize better with children who have similar disabilities. d. Parents of children with Down syndrome encourage programs such as scouting because they deny that their children have disabilities. ANS: B Children of all ages need peer relationships. Children with Down syndrome should have peer experiences similar to those of other children, such as group outings, Cub Scouts, and Special Olympics, which can all help children with cognitive impairment to develop socialization skills. Although all children should have an opportunity to form a close relationship with someone of the same developmental level, it is appropriate for children with disabilities to develop relationships with children who do not have disabilities. The parents are acting as advocates for their child. 10. Which action is contraindicated when a child with Down syndrome is hospitalized? a. Determine the child’s vocabulary for specific body functions. b. Assess the child’s hearing and visual capabilities. c. Encourage parents to leave the child alone for extended periods of time. d. Have meals served at the child’s usual mealtimes. ANS: C The child with Down syndrome needs routine schedules and consistency. Having familiar people present, especially parents, helps to decrease the child’s anxiety. To communicate effectively with the child, it is important to know the child’s particular vocabulary for specific body functions. Children with Down syndrome have a high incidence of hearing loss and vision problems and should have hearing and vision assessed whenever they are in a health care facility. Meals should be served at the usual mealtimes because routine schedules and consistency are important to children with Down syndrome. 23. The most basic information a maternity nurse should have concerning conception is that: a. Ova are considered fertile 48 to 72 hours after ovulation. b. Sperm remain viable in the woman’s reproductive system for an average of 12 to 24 hours. c. Conception is achieved when a sperm successfully penetrates the membrane surrounding the ovum. d. Implantation in the endometrium occurs 6 to 10 days after conception. ANS: D After implantation, the endometrium is called the decidua. Ova are considered fertile for about 24 hours after ovulation. Sperm remain viable in the woman’s reproductive system for an average of 2 to 3 days. Penetration of the ovum by the sperm is called fertilization. Conception occurs when the zygote, the first cell of the new individual, is formed. 2.A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have: a. Amenorrhea. c. Chadwick’s sign. b. Positive pregnancy test. d. Hegar’s sign. ANS: A Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Presumptive signs of pregnancy are felt by the woman. A positive pregnancy test, the presence of Chadwick’s sign, and the presence of Hegar’s sign all are probable signs of pregnancy. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 170 OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3. The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse’s instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is: a. A positive pregnancy test. b. Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife. c. Braxton Hicks contractions. d. Quickening. ANS: B Positive signs of pregnancy are attributed to the presence of a fetus, such as hearing the fetal heartbeat or palpating fetal movement. A positive pregnancy test and Braxton Hicks contractions are probable signs of pregnancy. Quickening is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. 31. The diagnosis of pregnancy is based on which positive signs of pregnancy (Select all that apply)? a. Identification of fetal heartbeat b. Palpation of fetal outline c. Visualization of the fetus d. Verification of fetal movement e. Positive hCG test ANS: A, C, D Identification of fetal heartbeat, visualization of the fetus, and verification of fetal movement all are positive, objective signs of pregnancy. Palpation of fetal outline and a positive hCG test are probable signs of pregnancy. A tumor also can be palpated. Medication and tumors may lead to false-positive results on pregnancy tests. 28. The nurse caring for a pregnant client knows that her health teaching regarding fetal circulation has been effective when the client reports that she has been sleeping: a. In a side-lying position. b. On her back with a pillow under her knees. c. With the head of the bed elevated. d. On her abdomen. ANS: A Optimal circulation is achieved when the woman is lying at rest on her side. Decreased uterine circulation may lead to intrauterine growth restriction. Previously it was believed that the left lateral position promoted maternal cardiac output, enhancing blood flow to the fetus. However, it is now known that the side-lying position enhances uteroplacental blood flow. If a woman lies on her back with the pressure of the uterus compressing the vena cava, blood return to the right atrium is diminished. Although having the head of the bed elevated is recommended and ideal for later in pregnancy, the woman still must maintain a lateral tilt to the pelvis to avoid compression of the vena cava. Many women find lying on her abdomen uncomfortable as pregnancy advances. Side-lying is the ideal position to promote blood flow to the fetus. 2.A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day, but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time? a. Ultrasound examination b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening c. Amniocentesis d. Nonstress test (NST) ANS: A An ultrasound examination could be done to confirm the pregnancy and determine the gestational age of the fetus. It is too early in the pregnancy to perform MSAFP screening, amniocentesis, or NST. MSAFP screening is performed at 16 to 18 weeks of gestation, followed by amniocentesis if MSAFP levels are abnormal or if fetal/maternal anomalies are detected. NST is performed to assess fetal well-being in the third trimester. 4.A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus? a. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies b. Biophysical profile (BPP) c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening d. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) ANS: B Real-time ultrasound permits detailed assessment of the physical and physiologic characteristics of the developing fetus and cataloging of normal and abnormal biophysical responses to stimuli. BPP is a noninvasive, dynamic assessment of a fetus that is based on acute and chronic markers of fetal disease. An ultrasound for fetal anomalies would most likely have been performed earlier in the pregnancy. It is too late in the pregnancy to perform MSAFP screening. Also, MSAFP screening does not provide information related to fetal well-being. Indications for PUBS include prenatal diagnosis or inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of a fetus with IUGR, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. 13. Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP): a. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death. b. Is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy. c. Consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index. d. Involves an invasive form of ultrasound examination. ANS: A An abnormal BPP score is an indication that labor should be induced. The BPP evaluates the health of the fetus, requires many different measures, and is a noninvasive procedure. 21.A pregnant woman’s biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. The nurse’s best response is: a. “The test results are within normal limits.” b. “Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is being considered.” c. “Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score.” d. “An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery.” ANS: A The normal biophysical score ranges from 8 to 10 points if the amniotic fluid volume is adequate. A normal score allows conservative treatment of high-risk patients. Delivery can be delayed if fetal well-being is indicated. Scores less than 4 should be investigated, and delivery could be initiated sooner than planned. This score is within normal range, and no further testing is required at this time. The results of the biophysical profile are usually available immediately after the procedure is performed. 7. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening indicates an elevated level. MSAFP screening is repeated and again is reported as higher than normal. What would be the next step in the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus? a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies c. Biophysical profile (BPP) for fetal well-being d. Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies ANS: B If MSAFP findings are abnormal, follow-up procedures include genetic counseling for families with a history of neural tube defect, repeated MSAFP screening, ultrasound examination, and possibly amniocentesis. Indications for use of PUBS include prenatal diagnosis of inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of fetuses with intrauterine growth restriction, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. BPP is a method of assessing fetal well-being in the third trimester. Before amniocentesis is considered, the client first would have an ultrasound for direct visualization of the fetus. 15. Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy, including that: a. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis. b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended only for women at risk for neural tube defects. c. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is one of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome. d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures. ANS: D MSAFP is a screening tool, not a diagnostic tool. CVS provides a rapid result, but it is declining in popularity because of advances in noninvasive screening techniques. MSAFP screening is recommended for all pregnant women. MSAFP screening, not PUBS, is part of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome. 5. The multiple marker test is used to assess the fetus for which condition? a. Down syndrome c. Congenital cardiac abnormality b. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Anencephaly ANS: A The maternal serum level of alpha-fetoprotein is used to screen for Down syndrome, neural tube defects, and other chromosome anomalies. The multiple marker test would not detect diaphragmatic hernia, congenital cardiac abnormality, or anencephaly. Additional testing, such as ultrasonography and amniocentesis, would be required to diagnose these conditions. 22. Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus? a. Multiple-marker screening b. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio c. Biophysical profile d. Type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum ANS: A Maternal serum can be analyzed for abnormal levels of alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, and estriol. The multiple-marker screening may predict chromosomal defects in the fetus. The L/S ratio is used to determine fetal lung maturity. A biophysical profile is used for evaluating fetal status during the antepartum period. Five variables are used, but none is concerned with chromosomal problems. The blood type and crossmatch would not predict chromosomal defects in the fetus. 7. The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced. Before initiating the Pitocin infusion, the nurse reviews the woman’s latest laboratory test findings, which reveal a platelet count of 90,000, an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) level, and a falling hematocrit. The nurse notifies the physician because the laboratory results are indicative of: a. Eclampsia. b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). c. HELLP syndrome. d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia. ANS: C HELLP syndrome is a laboratory diagnosis for a variant of severe preeclampsia that involves hepatic dysfunction characterized by hemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). Eclampsia is determined by the presence of seizures. DIC is a potential complication associated with HELLP syndrome. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is the presence of low platelets of unknown cause and is not associated with preeclampsia. 17. Nurses should be aware that HELLP syndrome: a. Is a mild form of preeclampsia. b. Can be diagnosed by a nurse alert to its symptoms. c. Is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. d. Is associated with preterm labor but not perinatal mortality. ANS: C The acronym HELLP stands for hemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). HELLP syndrome is a variant of severe preeclampsia. HELLP syndrome is difficult to identify because the symptoms often are not obvious. It must be diagnosed in the laboratory. Preterm labor is greatly increased, and so is perinatal mortality. 18. Nurses should be aware that chronic hypertension: a. Is defined as hypertension that begins during pregnancy and lasts for the duration of pregnancy. b. Is considered severe when the systolic blood pressure (BP) is greater than 140 mm Hg or the diastolic BP is greater than 90 mm Hg. c. Is general hypertension plus proteinuria. d. Can occur independently of or simultaneously with gestational hypertension. ANS: D Hypertension is present before pregnancy or diagnosed before 20 weeks of gestation and persists longer than 6 weeks postpartum. The range for hypertension is systolic BP greater than 140 mm Hg or diastolic BP greater than 90 mm Hg. It becomes severe with a diastolic BP of 110 mm Hg or higher. Proteinuria is an excessive concentration of protein in the urine. It is a complication of hypertension, not a defining characteristic. Magnesium sulfate 10.A woman with severe preeclampsia has been receiving magnesium sulfate by intravenous infusion for 8 hours. The nurse assesses the woman and documents the following findings: temperature of 37.1° C, pulse rate of 96 beats/min, respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP) of 155/112 mm Hg, 3+ deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The nurse calls the physician, anticipating an order for: a. Hydralazine. c. Diazepam. b. Magnesium sulfate bolus. d. Calcium gluconate. ANS: A Hydralazine is an antihypertensive commonly used to treat hypertension in severe preeclampsia. Typically it is administered for a systolic BP greater than 160 mm Hg or a diastolic BP greater than 110 mm Hg. An additional bolus of magnesium sulfate may be ordered for increasing signs of central nervous system irritability related to severe preeclampsia (e.g., clonus) or if eclampsia develops. Diazepam sometimes is used to stop or shorten eclamptic seizures. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. The client is not currently displaying any signs or symptoms of magnesium toxicity. 12. The patient that you are caring for has severe preeclampsia and is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. You become concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits: a. A sleepy, sedated affect. c. Deep tendon reflexes of 2. b. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. d. Absent ankle clonus. ANS: B A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory depression from magnesium toxicity. Because magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant, the client will most likely become sedated when the infusion is initiated. Deep tendon reflexes of 2 and absent ankle clonus are normal findings. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 312 OBJ: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity 13. Your patient has been receiving magnesium sulfate for 20 hours for treatment of preeclampsia. She just delivered a viable infant girl 30 minutes ago. What uterine findings would you expect to observe/assess in this client? a. Absence of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period b. A fundus firm below the level of the umbilicus c. Scant lochia flow d. A boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow ANS: D Because of the tocolytic effects of magnesium sulfate, this patient most likely would have a boggy uterus with increased amounts of bleeding and a heavy lochia flow in the postpartum period. 14. Your patient is being induced because of her worsening preeclampsia. She is also receiving magnesium sulfate. It appears that her labor has not become active despite several hours of oxytocin administration. She asks the nurse, “Why is it taking so long?” The most appropriate response by the nurse would be: a. “The magnesium is relaxing your uterus and competing with the oxytocin. It may increase the duration of your labor.” b. “I don’t know why it is taking so long.” c. “The length of labor varies for different women.” d. “Your baby is just being stubborn.” ANS: A Because magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic agent, its use may increase the duration of labor. The amount of oxytocin needed to stimulate labor may be more than that needed for the woman who is not receiving magnesium sulfate. “I don’t know why it is taking so long” is not an appropriate statement for the nurse to make. Although the length of labor does vary in different women, the most likely reason this woman’s labor is protracted is the tocolytic effect of magnesium sulfate. The behavior of the fetus has no bearing on the length of labor. 20. Magnesium sulfate is given to women with preeclampsia and eclampsia to: a. Improve patellar reflexes and increase respiratory efficiency. b. Shorten the duration of labor. c. Prevent and treat convulsions. d. Prevent a boggy uterus and lessen lochial flow. ANS: C Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice to prevent convulsions, although it can generate other problems. Loss of patellar reflexes and respiratory depression are signs of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can increase the duration of labor. Women are at risk for a boggy uterus and heavy lochial flow as a result of magnesium sulfate therapy. 3. In evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate for the treatment of preterm labor, what finding would alert the nurse to possible side effects? a. Urine output of 160 mL in 4 hours b. Deep tendon reflexes 2+ and no clonus c. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min d. Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL ANS: D The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate management is 5 to 8 mg/dL. A serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL could lead to signs and symptoms of magnesium toxicity, including oliguria and respiratory distress. Urine output of 160 mL in 4 hours, deep tendon reflexes 2+ with no clonus, and respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min are normal findings. 4. Which woman is at greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)? a. A primiparous woman (G 2 P 1 0 0 1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress b. A woman with severe preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate and whose labor is being induced c. A multiparous woman (G 3 P 2 0 0 2) with an 8-hour labor d. A primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins ANS: B Magnesium sulfate administration during labor poses a risk for PPH. Magnesium acts as a smooth muscle relaxant, thereby contributing to uterine relaxation and atony. Although many causes and risk factors are associated with PPH, the primiparous woman being prepared for an emergency C-section, the multiparous woman with 8-hour labor, and the primigravida in spontaneous labor do not pose risk factors or causes of early PPH. 9.A pregnant woman has been receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion for treatment of severe preeclampsia for 24 hours. On assessment the nurse finds the following vital signs: temperature of 37.3° C, pulse rate of 88 beats/min, respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP) of 148/90 mm Hg, absent deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The client complains, “I’m so thirsty and warm.” The nurse: a. Calls for a stat magnesium sulfate level. b. Administers oxygen. c. Discontinues the magnesium sulfate infusion. d. Prepares to administer hydralazine. ANS: C The client is displaying clinical signs and symptoms of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium should be discontinued immediately. In addition, calcium gluconate, the antidote for magnesium, may be administered. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive commonly used to treat hypertension in severe preeclampsia. Typically it is administered for a systolic BP greater than 160 mm Hg or a diastolic BP greater than 110 mm Hg. 23. The perinatal nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman after suction curettage secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The woman asks why she must take oral contraceptives for the next 12 months. The best response from the nurse would be: a. “If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a successful pregnancy is very small. Therefore, if you desire a future pregnancy, it would be better for you to use the most reliable method of contraception available.” b. “The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same hormone that your body produces during pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more difficult.” c. “If you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of developing a second molar pregnancy is rare. Therefore, to improve your chance of a successful pregnancy, it is better not to get pregnant at this time.” d. “Oral contraceptives are the only form of birth control that will prevent a recurrence of a molar pregnancy.” ANS: B This is an accurate statement. -Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels will be drawn for 1 year to ensure that the mole is completely gone. There is an increased chance of developing choriocarcinoma after the development of a hydatidiform mole. The goal is to achieve a “zero” hCG level. If the woman were to become pregnant, it could obscure the presence of the potentially carcinogenic cells. Women should be instructed to use birth control for 1 year after treatment for a hydatidiform mole. The rationale for avoiding pregnancy for 1 year is to ensure that carcinogenic cells are not present. Any contraceptive method except an intrauterine device is acceptable. 40. What finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks could suggest a hydatidiform mole? a. Complaint of frequent mild nausea b. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg c. Fundal height measurement of 18 cm d. History of bright red spotting for 1 day, weeks ago ANS: C The uterus in a hydatidiform molar pregnancy is often larger than would be expected on the basis of the duration of the pregnancy. Nausea increases in a molar pregnancy because of the increased production of hCG. A woman with a molar pregnancy may have early- onset pregnancy-induced hypertension. In the patient’s history, bleeding is normally described as brownish. 34.A woman is 6 weeks pregnant. She has had a previous spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with the birth of a stillborn girl. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system? ANS: 3-1-0-1-0 The correct calculation of this woman’s gravidity and parity is 3-1-0-1-0. Using the GPTAL system, this client’s gravidity and parity information is calculated as follows: G: Total number of times the woman has been pregnant (she is pregnant for the third time) T: Number of pregnancies carried to term (she has had only one pregnancy that resulted in a fetus at term) P: Number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth (none) A: Abortions or miscarriages before the period of viability (she has had one) L: Number of children born who are currently living (she has no living children) 22.A woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of bleeding and cramping. The initial nursing history is significant for a last menstrual period 6 weeks ago. On sterile speculum examination, the primary care provider finds that the cervix is closed. The anticipated plan of care for this woman would be based on a probable diagnosis of which type of spontaneous abortion? a. Incomplete c. Threatened b. Inevitable d. Septic ANS: C A woman with a threatened abortion presents with spotting, mild cramps, and no cervical dilation. A woman with an incomplete abortion would present with heavy bleeding, mild to severe cramping, and cervical dilation. An inevitable abortion manifests with the same symptoms as an incomplete abortion: heavy bleeding, mild to severe cramping, and cervical dilation. A woman with a septic abortion presents with malodorous bleeding and typically a dilated cervix. 30. Which condition would not be classified as a bleeding disorder in late pregnancy? a. Placenta previa. c. Spontaneous abortion. b. Abruptio placentae. d. Cord insertion. ANS: C Spontaneous abortion is another name for miscarriage; by definition it occurs early in pregnancy. Placenta previa is a cause of bleeding disorders in later pregnancy. Abruptio placentae is a cause of bleeding disorders in later pregnancy. Cord insertion is a cause of bleeding disorders in later pregnancy. 33. Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if: a. The pregnancy is less than 20 weeks. b. The fetus weighs less than 1000 g. c. The products of conception are passed intact. d. No evidence exists of intrauterine infection. ANS: A An abortion is the termination of pregnancy before the age of viability (20 weeks). The weight of the fetus is not considered because some older fetuses may have a low birth weight. A spontaneous abortion may be complete or incomplete. A spontaneous abortion may be caused by many problems, one being intrauterine infection. 42. Approximately 10% to 15% of all clinically recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage. Which is the most common cause of spontaneous abortion? a. Chromosomal abnormalities c. Endocrine imbalance b. Infections d. Immunologic factors ANS: A At least 50% of pregnancy losses result from chromosomal abnormalities that are incompatible with life. Maternal infection may be a cause of early miscarriage. Endocrine imbalances such as hypothyroidism or diabetes are possible causes for early pregnancy loss. Women who have repeated early pregnancy losses appear to have immunologic factors that play a role in spontaneous abortion incidents. 15. What three measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? Select the response that best indicates the priority of actions that should be taken. a. Call the provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal examination. b. Reposition the mother, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and provide oxygen via face mask. c. Administer oxygen to the mother, increase IV fluid, and notify the care provider. d. Perform a vaginal examination, reposition the mother, and provide oxygen via face mask. ANS: B Repositioning the mother, increasing intravenous (IV) fluid, and providing oxygen via face mask are correct nursing actions for intrauterine resuscitation. The nurse should initiate intrauterine resuscitation in an ABC manner, similar to basic life support. The first priority is to open the maternal and fetal vascular systems by repositioning the mother for improved perfusion. The second priority is to increase blood volume by increasing the IV fluid. The third priority is to optimize oxygenation of the circulatory volume by providing oxygen via face mask. If these interventions do not resolve the fetal heart rate issue quickly, the primary provider should be notified immediately. 19.A normal uterine activity pattern in labor is characterized by: a. Contractions every 2 to 5 minutes. b. Contractions lasting about 2 minutes. c. Contractions about 1 minute apart. d. A contraction intensity of about 1000 mm Hg with relaxation at 50 mm Hg. ANS: A Contractions normally occur every 2 to 5 minutes and last less than 90 seconds (intensity 800 mm Hg) with about 30 seconds in between (20 mm Hg or less). 24. When assessing the relative advantages and disadvantages of internal and external electronic fetal monitoring, nurses comprehend that both: a. Can be used when membranes are intact. b. Measure the frequency, duration, and intensity of uterine contractions. c. May need to rely on the woman to indicate when uterine activity (UA) is occurring. d. Can be used during the antepartum and intrapartum periods. ANS: D External monitoring can be used in both periods; internal monitoring can be used only in the intrapartum period. For internal monitoring the membranes must have ruptured, and the cervix must be sufficiently dilated. Internal monitoring measures the intensity of contractions; external monitoring cannot do this. With external monitoring, the woman may need to alert the nurse that UA is occurring; internal monitoring does not require this. 33. Which maternal condition is considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices? a. Unruptured membranes c. External monitors in current use b. Cervix dilated to 4 cm d. Fetus with a known heart defect ANS: A In order to apply internal monitoring devices, the membranes must be ruptured. Cervical dilation of 4 cm permits the insertion of fetal scalp electrodes and intrauterine catheter. The external monitor can be discontinued after the internal ones are applied. A compromised fetus should be monitored with the most accurate monitoring devices. 34. The nurse knows that proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is located: a. Over the uterine fundus. c. Inside the uterus. b. On the fetal scalp. d. Over the mother’s lower abdomen. ANS: A The tocotransducer monitors uterine activity and should be placed over the fundus, where the most intensive uterine contractions occur. The tocotransducer is for external use. 17. The nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that contraction stress test (CST): a. Sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation. b. Is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated. c. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. d. Is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured. ANS: C No late decelerations is good news. Vibroacoustic stimulation is sometimes used with NST. CST is invasive if stimulation is by intravenous oxytocin but not if by nipple stimulation and is contraindicated if the membranes have ruptured. 2. While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) for five sequential contractions begins to decelerate late in the contraction, with the nadir of the decelerations occurring after the peak of the contraction. The nurse’s first priority is to: a. Change the woman’s position. c. Assist with amnioinfusion. b. Notify the care provider. d. Insert a scalp electrode. ANS: A Late decelerations may be caused by maternal supine hypotension syndrome. They usually are corrected when the woman turns on her side to displace the weight of the gravid uterus from the vena cava. If the fetus does not respond to primary nursing interventions for late decelerations, the nurse would continue with subsequent intrauterine resuscitation measures, including notifying the care provider. An amnioinfusion may be used to relieve pressure on an umbilical cord that has not prolapsed. The FHR pattern associated with this situation most likely reveals variable deceleration. A fetal scalp electrode would provide accurate data for evaluating the well-being of the fetus; however, this is not a nursing intervention that would alleviate late decelerations, nor is it the nurse’s first priority. 3. The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by: a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. b. Umbilical cord compression. d. Spontaneous rupture of membranes. ANS: A Early decelerations are the fetus’s response to fetal head compression. Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. Spontaneous rupture of membranes has no bearing on the fetal heart rate unless the umbilical cord prolapses, which would result in variable or prolonged bradycardia. 4. The nurse providing care for the laboring woman comprehends that accelerations with fetal movement: a. Are reassuring. b. Are caused by umbilical cord compression. c. Warrant close observation. d. Are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. ANS: A Episodic accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) occur during fetal movement and are indications of fetal well-being. Umbilical cord compression results in variable decelerations in the FHR. Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well-being and do not warrant close observation. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR 6. The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are the result of: a. Altered cerebral blood flow. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. b. Umbilical cord compression. d. Meconium fluid. ANS: C Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR. Meconium-stained fluid may or may not produce changes in the fetal heart rate, depending on the gestational age of the fetus and whether other causative factors associated with fetal distress are present. 7. The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that amnioinfusion is used to treat: a. Variable decelerations. c. Fetal bradycardia. b. Late decelerations. d. Fetal tachycardia. ANS: A Amnioinfusion is used during labor either to dilute meconium-stained amniotic fluid or to supplement the amount of amniotic fluid to reduce the severity of variable decelerations caused by cord compression. Amnioinfusion has no bearing on late decelerations, fetal bradycardia, or fetal tachycardia alterations in fetal heart rate (FHR) tracings. 11. Which fetal heart rate (FHR) finding would concern the nurse during labor? a. Accelerations with fetal movement c. An average FHR of 126 beats/min b. Early decelerations d. Late decelerations ANS: D Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and are associated with fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent and uncorrected. Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well-being. Early decelerations in the FHR are associated with head compression as the fetus descends into the maternal pelvic outlet; they generally are not a concern during normal labor. 17. As a perinatal nurse you realize that a fetal heart rate that is tachycardic, is bradycardic, or has late decelerations or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with: a. Hypotension. c. Maternal drug use. b. Cord compression. d. Hypoxemia. ANS: D Nonreassuring heart rate patterns are associated with fetal hypoxemia. Fetal bradycardia may be associated with maternal hypotension. Fetal variable decelerations are associated with cord compression. Maternal drug use is associated with fetal tachycardia. 27. Which deceleration of the fetal heart rate would not require the nurse to change the maternal position? a. Early decelerations b. Late decelerations c. Variable decelerations d. It is always a good idea to change the woman’s position. ANS: A Early decelerations (and accelerations) generally do not need any nursing intervention. Late decelerations suggest that the nurse should change the maternal position (lateral); variable decelerations also require a maternal position change (side to side). Although changing positions throughout labor is recommended, it is not required in response to early decelerations. 28. What correctly matches the type of deceleration with its likely cause? a. Early deceleration—umbilical cord compression b. Late deceleration—uteroplacental inefficiency c. Variable deceleration—head compression d. Prolonged deceleration—cause unknown ANS: B Late deceleration is caused by uteroplacental inefficiency. Early deceleration is caused by head compression. Variable deceleration is caused by umbilical cord compression. Prolonged deceleration has a variety of either benign or critical causes. 38. The baseline fetal heart rate (FHR) is the average rate during a 10-minute segment. Changes in FHR are categorized as periodic or episodic. These patterns include both accelerations and decelerations. The labor nurse is evaluating the patient’s most recent 10-minute segment on the monitor strip and notes a late deceleration. This is likely to be caused by which physiologic alteration (Select all that apply)? a. Spontaneous fetal movement b. Compression of the fetal head c. Placental abruption d. Cord around the baby’s neck e. Maternal supine hypotension ANS: C, E Late decelerations are almost always caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. Insufficiency is caused by uterine tachysystole, maternal hypotension, epidural or spinal anesthesia, IUGR, intraamniotic infection, or placental abruption. Spontaneous fetal movement, vaginal examination, fetal scalp stimulation, fetal reaction to external sounds, uterine contractions, fundal pressure and abdominal palpation are all likely to cause accelerations of the FHR. Early decelerations are most often the result of fetal head compression and may be caused by uterine contractions, fundal pressure, vaginal examination, and placement of an internal electrode. A variable deceleration is likely caused by umbilical cord compression. This may happen when the umbilical cord is around the baby’s neck, arm, leg, or other body part or when there is a short cord, a knot in the cord, or a prolapsed cord. 3. The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by: a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. b. Umbilical cord compression. d. Spontaneous rupture of membranes. ANS: A Early decelerations are the fetus’s response to fetal head compression. Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. Spontaneous rupture of membranes has no bearing on the fetal heart rate unless the umbilical cord prolapses, which would result in variable or prolonged bradycardia. 11. Which fetal heart rate (FHR) finding would concern the nurse during labor? a. Accelerations with fetal movement c. An average FHR of 126 beats/min b. Early decelerations d. Late decelerations ANS: D Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and are associated with fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent and uncorrected. Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well-being. Early decelerations in the FHR are associated with head compression as the fetus descends into the maternal pelvic outlet; they generally are not a concern during normal labor. 27. Which deceleration of the fetal heart rate would not require the nurse to change the maternal position? a. Early decelerations b. Late decelerations c. Variable decelerations d. It is always a good idea to change the woman’s position. ANS: A Early decelerations (and accelerations) generally do not need any nursing intervention. Late decelerations suggest that the nurse should change the maternal position (lateral); variable decelerations also require a maternal position change (side to side). Although changing positions throughout labor is recommended, it is not required in response to early decelerations. 5. The nurse providing care for the laboring woman realizes that variable fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are caused by: a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. b. Umbilical cord compression. d. Fetal hypoxemia. ANS: B Variable decelerations can occur any time during the uterine contracting phase and are caused by compression of the umbilical cord. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Fetal hypoxemia would result in tachycardia initially and then bradycardia if hypoxia continues. 29. The nurse caring for a woman in labor understands that prolonged decelerations: a. Are a continuing pattern of benign decelerations that do not require intervention. b. Constitute a baseline change when they last longer than 5 minutes. c. Usually are isolated events that end spontaneously. d. Require the usual fetal monitoring by the nurse. ANS: C Prolonged decelerations usually are isolated events that end spontaneously. However, in certain combinations with late and/or variable decelerations, they are a danger sign that requires the nurse to notify the physician or midwife immediately. A deceleration that lasts longer than 10 minutes constitutes a baseline change. 6. During a phone follow-up conversation with a woman who is 4 days’ postpartum, the woman tells the nurse, “I don’t know what’s wrong. I love my son, but I feel so let down. I seem to cry for no reason!” The nurse would recognize that the woman is experiencing: a. Taking-in. c. Postpartum (PP) blues. b. Postpartum depression (PPD). d. Attachment difficulty. ANS: C During the PP blues women are emotionally labile, often crying easily and for no apparent reason. This lability seems to peak around the fifth PP day. The taking-in phase is the period after birth when the mother focuses on her own psychologic needs. Typically this period lasts 24 hours. PPD is an intense, pervasive sadness marked by severe, labile mood swings; it is more serious and persistent than the PP blues. Crying is not a maladaptive attachment response; it indicates PP blues. 20. The early postpartum period is a time of emotional and physical vulnerability. Many mothers can easily become psychologically overwhelmed by the reality of their new parental responsibilities. Fatigue compounds these issues. Although the baby blues are a common occurrence in the postpartum period, about one-half million women in America experience a more severe syndrome known as postpartum depression (PPD). Which statement regarding PPD is essential for the nurse to be aware of when attempting to formulate a nursing diagnosis? a. PPD symptoms are consistently severe. b. This syndrome affects only new mothers. c. PPD can easily go undetected. d. Only mental health professionals should teach new parents about this condition. ANS: C PPD can go undetected because parents do not voluntarily admit to this type of emotional distress out of embarrassment, fear, or guilt. PPD symptoms range from mild to severe, with women having both good and bad days. Both mothers and fathers should be screened. PPD may also affect new fathers. The nurse should include information on PPD and how to differentiate this from the baby blues for all clients on discharge. Nurses also can urge new parents to report symptoms and seek follow-up care promptly if symptoms occur. 17. When a woman is diagnosed with postpartum depression (PPD) with psychotic features, one of the main concerns is that she may: a. Have outbursts of anger. c. Harm her infant. b. Neglect her hygiene. d. Lose interest in her husband. ANS: C Thoughts of harm to oneself’ or the infant are among the most serious symptoms of PPD and require immediate assessment and intervention. Although outbursts of anger, hygiene neglect, and loss of interest in her husband are attributable to PPD, the major concern would be the potential to harm herself or her infant. 18. According to Beck’s studies, what risk factor for postpartum depression is likely to have the greatest effect on the woman’s condition? a. Prenatal depression c. Low socioeconomic status b. Single-mother status d. Unplanned or unwanted pregnancy ANS: A Prenatal depression has been found by Beck to have the greatest likely effect. Single- mother status and low socioeconomic status are small-relation predictors, as is an unwanted pregnancy. 19. To provide adequate postpartum care, the nurse should be aware that postpartum depression (PPD) without psychotic features: a. Means that the woman is experiencing the baby blues. In addition she has a visit with a counselor or psychologist. b. Is more common among older, Caucasian women because they have higher expectations. c. Is distinguished by irritability, severe anxiety, and panic attacks. d. Will disappear on its own without outside help. ANS: C PPD is also characterized by spontaneous crying long after the usual duration of the baby blues. PPD, even without psychotic features, is more serious and persistent than postpartum baby blues. It is more common among younger mothers and African-American mothers. Most women need professional help to get through PPD, including pharmacologic intervention. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 546 OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity 20. To provide adequate postpartum care, the nurse should be aware that postpartum depression (PPD) with psychotic features: a. Is more likely to occur in women with more than two children. b. Is rarely delusional and then is usually about someone trying to harm her (the mother). c. Although serious, is not likely to need psychiatric hospitalization. d. May include bipolar disorder (formerly called “manic depression”). ANS: D Manic mood swings are possible. PPD is more likely to occur in first-time mothers. Delusions may be present in 50% of women with PPD, usually about something being wrong with the infant. PPD with psychosis is a psychiatric emergency that requires hospitalization. 36. Which condition is a transient, self-limiting mood disorder that affects new mothers after childbirth? a. Postpartum depression c. Postpartum bipolar disorder b. Postpartum psychosis d. Postpartum blues ANS: D Postpartum blues or “baby blues” is a transient self-limiting disease that is believed to be related to hormonal fluctuations after childbirth. Postpartum depression is not the normal worries (blues) that many new mothers experience. Many caregivers believe that postpartum depression is underdiagnosed and underreported. Postpartum psychosis is a rare condition that usually surfaces within 3 weeks of delivery. Hospitalization of the woman is usually necessary for treatment of this disorder. Bipolar disorder is one of the two categories of postpartum psychosis, characterized by both manic and depressive episodes. 39. Possible alternative and complementary therapies for postpartum depression (PPD) for breastfeeding mothers include (Select all that apply): a. Acupressure. d. Wine consumption. b. Aromatherapy. e. Yoga. c. St. John’s wort. ANS: A, B, E Possible alternative/complementary therapies for postpartum depression include acupuncture, acupressure, aromatherapy, therapeutic touch, massage, relaxation techniques, reflexology, and yoga. St. John’s wort has not been proven to be safe for women who are breastfeeding. Women who are breastfeeding and/or have a history of PPD should not consume alcohol. 21. With shortened hospital stays, new mothers are often discharged before they begin to experience symptoms of the baby blues or postpartum depression. As part of the discharge teaching, the nurse can prepare the mother for this adjustment to her new role by instructing her regarding self-care activities to help prevent postpartum depression. The most accurate statement as related to these activities is to: a. Stay home and avoid outside activities to ensure adequate rest. b. Be certain that you are the only caregiver for your baby, to facilitate infant attachment. c. Keep feelings of sadness and adjustment to your new role to yourself. d. Realize that this is a common occurrence that affects many women. ANS: D Should the new mother experience symptoms of the baby blues, it is important that she be aware that this is nothing to be ashamed of. Up to 80% of women experience this type of mild depression after the birth of their infant. Although it is important for the mother to obtain enough rest, she should not distance herself from family and friends. Her spouse or partner can communicate the best visiting times so the new mother can obtain adequate rest. It is also important that she not isolate herself at home during this time of role adjustment. Even if breastfeeding, other family members can participate in the infant’s care. If depression occurs, the symptoms can often interfere with mothering functions, and this support will be essential. The new mother should share her feelings with someone else. It is also important that she not overcommit herself or think she has to be “superwoman.” A telephone call to the hospital warm line may provide reassurance with lactation issues and other infant care questions. Should symptoms continue, a referral to a professional therapist may be necessary. 20. The early postpartum period is a time of emotional and physical vulnerability. Many mothers can easily become psychologically overwhelmed by the reality of their new parental responsibilities. Fatigue compounds these issues. Although the baby blues are a common occurrence in the postpartum period, about one-half million women in America experience a more severe syndrome known as postpartum depression (PPD). Which statement regarding PPD is essential for the nurse to be aware of when attempting to formulate a nursing diagnosis? a. PPD symptoms are consistently severe. b. This syndrome affects only new mothers. c. PPD can easily go undetected. d. Only mental health professionals should teach new parents about this condition. ANS: C PPD can go undetected because parents do not voluntarily admit to this type of emotional distress out of embarrassment, fear, or guilt. PPD symptoms range from mild to severe, with women having both good and bad days. Both mothers and fathers should be screened. PPD may also affect new fathers. The nurse should include information on PPD and how to differentiate this from the baby blues for all clients on discharge. Nurses also can urge new parents to report symptoms and seek follow-up care promptly if symptoms occur. 4. Which hormone remains elevated in the immediate postpartum period of the breastfeeding woman? a. Estrogen c. Prolactin b. Progesterone d. Human placental lactogen ANS: C Prolactin levels in the blood increase progressively throughout pregnancy. In women who breastfeed, prolactin levels remain elevated into the sixth week after birth. Estrogen and progesterone levels decrease markedly after expulsion of the placenta and reach their lowest levels 1 week into the postpartum period. Human placental lactogen levels decrease dramatically after expulsion of the placenta. 5. Two days ago a woman gave birth to a full-term infa