EMT Exam 1 Review Questions with 100% correct answers

During the scene size-up, you should routinely determine all of the following, EXCEPT: A) the mechanism of injury or nature of illness. B) the ratio of pediatric patients to adult patients. C) whether or not additional resources are needed. D) if there are any hazards that will jeopardize safety. Answer: B Rationale: Components of the scene size-up—after taking standard precautions—include determining if the scene is safe for entry, determining the mechanism of injury or nature of illness, determining the number of patients, and determining if additional resources are needed at the scene. You arrive at the scene of an "injured person." As you exit the ambulance, you see a man lying on the front porch of his house. He appears to have been shot in the head and is lying in a pool of blood. You should: A) immediately assess the patient. B) proceed to the patient with caution. C) quickly assess the scene for a gun. D) retreat to a safe place and wait for law enforcement to arrive. Answer: D Rationale: Your primary responsibility as an EMT is to protect yourself. Prior to entering any scene, you must assess for potential dangers. In cases where violence has occurred, you must retreat to a safe place and wait for law enforcement personnel to arrive. Findings such as inadequate breathing or an altered level of consciousness should be identified in the: A) primary assessment. B) focused assessment. C) secondary assessment. D) reassessment. Answer: A Rationale: The purpose of the primary assessment is to identify and manage any life threats to the patient, such as inadequate breathing, an altered level of consciousness, or severe hemorrhage. Which of the following would you NOT detect while determining your initial general impression of a patient? A) Cyanosis B) Gurgling respirations C) Severe bleeding D) Rapid heart rate Answer: D Rationale: The initial general impression is what you first notice as you approach the patient, but before physical contact with the patient is made. It is what you see, hear, or smell. A rapid heart rate (tachycardia) would not be detected until you actually perform the entire primary assessment; you cannot see, hear, or smell tachycardia. Your primary assessment of an elderly woman who fell reveals an altered level of consciousness and a large hematoma to her forehead. After protecting her spine and administering oxygen, you should: A) reassess your interventions. B) perform a rapid exam. C) transport the patient D) immediately. perform a focused assessment of her head. Answer: B Rationale: If any life-threatening problems are discovered in the primary assessment, they should be addressed immediately. The EMT should then perform a rapid exam to look for other potentially life-threatening injuries or conditions. A semiconscious patient pushes your hand away when you pinch his earlobe. You should describe his level of consciousness as: A) alert. B) unresponsive. C) responsive to painful stimuli. D) responsive to verbal stimuli. Answer: C Rationale: Semiconscious patients are not alert, nor are they unresponsive. The fact that the patient pushes your hand away when you pinch his earlobe indicates that he is responsive to painful stimuli. If he opens his eyes or responds when you speak to him, he would be described as being responsive to verbal stimuli. Assessment of an unconscious patient's breathing begins by: A) inserting an oral airway. B) manually positioning the head. C) assessing respiratory rate and depth. D) clearing the mouth with suction as needed. Answer: B Rationale: You cannot assess or treat an unconscious patient's breathing until the airway is patent—that is, open and free of obstructions. Manually open the patient's airway (eg, head tilt-chin lift, jaw-thrust), use suction as needed to clear the airway of blood or other liquids, insert an airway adjunct to assist in maintaining airway patency, and then assess the patient's respiratory effort. Your 12-year-old patient can speak only two or three words without pausing to take a breath. He has a serious breathing problem known as: A) nasal flaring. B) two- to three-word dyspnea. C) labored breathing. D) shallow respirations. Answer: B Rationale: Two- to three-word dyspnea is a severe breathing problem in which a patient can speak only two to three words at a time without pausing to take a breath. How should you determine the pulse in an unresponsive 8-year-old patient? A) Palpate the radial pulse at the wrist. B) Palpate the brachial pulse inside the upper arm. C) Palpate the radial pulse with your thumb. D) Palpate the carotid pulse in the neck. Answer: D Rationale: In unresponsive patients older than 1 year, you should palpate the carotid pulse in the neck. If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient, begin CPR. When assessing your patient's pain, he says it started in his chest but has spread to his legs. This is an example of what part of the OPQRST mnemonic? A) Onset B) Quality C) Region/radiation D) Severity Answer: C Rationale: The region/radiation section of the OPQRST mnemonic assesses a patient's pain—where it hurts and where the pain has spread. Because the patient informed you that his pain spread from his chest to his legs, this would be an example of radiation. Pharmacology is defined as the: A) study of cells and tissues. B) study of drugs and medications. C) effects of medications in the lungs. D) distribution of drugs to the body's tissues. Answer: B Rationale: Pharmacology is the field of science that deals with the study of drugs and medications. Which of the following statements regarding medications is FALSE? A) Many medications are known by different names. B) Some medications affect more than one body system. C) Over-the-counter drugs must be prescribed by a physician. D) EMTs should ask about any herbal remedies or vitamins that the patient may be taking. Answer: C Rationale: Over-the-counter (OTC) drugs, such as aspirin, Tylenol, and Motrin, do not require a physician prescription. They can be purchased at a supermarket or drugstore. Most medications have a generic name and a trade name. For example, acetaminophen is the generic name for Tylenol, and ibuprofen is the generic name for Motrin. Which of the following routes of medication administration has the fastest effect? A) Oral B) Intravenous C) Subcutaneous D) Intramuscular Answer: B Rationale: Because its administration is directly into a vein, a drug given intravenously enters the body quickly. The intravenous route is the fastest acting of all the routes of medication administration. When administered to a patient, a metered-dose inhaler will: A) deliver the same dose each time it is administered. B) be ineffective when given to patients with asthma. C) deliver a different dose each time it is administered. D) be delivered to the lungs over a period of 6 to 8 hours. Answer: A Rationale: The metered-dose inhaler (MDI) delivers the same dose of medication each time it is used. Drugs given via the MDI act very quickly and are commonly prescribed to patients with asthma, emphysema, and other airway diseases. You are managing a 62-year-old woman who complains of crushing chest pain. Her blood pressure is 84/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. Medical control advises you to assist her in taking her prescribed nitroglycerin. After receiving this order, you should: A) reassess the patient's heart rate and then assist with the nitroglycerin. B) repeat the patient's blood pressure to the physician and confirm the order. C) wait 10 minutes, reassess the blood pressure, and then give the nitroglycerin. D) administer the nitroglycerin to the patient and then reassess her blood pressure. Answer: B Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator and lowers blood pressure (BP); therefore, it should not be given to patients with a systolic BP less than 100 mm Hg. If you receive an order to give nitroglycerin to a patient with a systolic BP less than 100 mm Hg, you should ensure that the physician is aware of the patient's BP, then reconfirm the order. Activated charcoal is indicated for patients who have ingested certain drugs and toxins because it: A) acts as a direct reversal agent for most medications. B) induces vomiting before the chemical can be digested. C) detoxifies the drug before it can cause harm to the patient. D) binds to chemicals in the stomach and delays absorption. Answer: D Rationale: Activated charcoal is an adsorbent—that is, it binds to harmful chemicals that have been ingested. This binding effect delays digestion and absorption of the chemical by the body. With regard to pharmacology, the term "action" refers to the: A) ability of a drug to cause harm. B) ability of a drug to produce side effects. C) amount of time it will take the drug to work. D) expected effect of a drug on the patient's body. Answer: D Rationale: As it applies to pharmacology, the term "action" refers to the effect that a drug is expected to have on a patient's body. Prior to administering any drug, the EMT must be aware of its action(s) on the body. Which of the following patients is the BEST candidate for oral glucose? A) Conscious patient who is showing signs of hypoglycemia B) Unconscious diabetic patient with a documented low blood sugar C) Conscious diabetic patient suspected of being hyperglycemic D) Semiconscious patient with signs and symptoms of low blood sugar Answer: A Rationale: Oral glucose is given to diabetic patients with suspected or documented hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It should not be given to unconscious patients or those who are otherwise unable to swallow because it may be aspirated into the lungs. Epinephrine is given to patients with anaphylactic shock because of its effects of: A) bronchodilation and vasodilation. B) bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. C) vasodilation and bronchoconstriction. D) bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction. Answer: B Rationale: The two major complications associated with anaphylactic shock are bronchoconstriction, which impairs air move-ment in and out of the lungs, and vasodilation, which causes a drop in blood pressure. Epinephrine reverses these processes by causing bronchodilation and vasoconstriction, thereby improving breathing and increasing the blood pressure, respectively. The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream is called: A) adsorption. B) onset of action. C) absorption. D) transformation. Answer: C Rationale: The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream is called absorption. Adsorption refers to the binding of one chemical to another. Activated charcoal, for example, delays absorption of certain chemicals into the bloodstream because it adsorbs (binds to) them in the stomach. Which of the following are found in the retroperitoneal space? A) Liver B) Spleen C) Kidneys D) Stomach Answer: C Rationale: The kidneys lie in the retroperitoneal space—the space behind the abdominal cavity. The spleen, liver, and stomach are all located within the anterior (true) abdomen. The cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: A) costal arch. B) manubrium. C) angle of Louis. D) xiphoid process. Answer: D Rationale: The xiphoid process projects from the lower part of the sternum. It is made of cartilage and, relative to other parts of the sternum (eg, manubrium, angle of Louis), is soft to palpation. A person with bilateral femur fractures has: A) fractured one of his or her femurs. B) fractured both of his or her femurs. C) one femur fractured in two places. D) fractured the lateral aspect of the femur. Answer: B Rationale: The term bilateral refers to both sides of the body with reference to the midline. Therefore, bilateral femur fractures would indicate that both femurs are fractured. The MOST prominent landmark on the anterior surface of the neck is the: A) mastoid process. B) cricoid cartilage. C) thyroid cartilage. D) cricothyroid membrane. Answer: C Rationale: The thyroid cartilage, commonly referred to as the "Adam's apple," is the most prominent landmark on the anterior (front) surface of the neck. The cricoid cartilage is located directly inferior to (below) the thyroid cartilage; it is a less prominent landmark.