PANCE Practice Exam #1 Questions And Answers( With Complete Top Solution)
PANCE Practice Exam #1 1. A 52 year-old male presents complaining of urinary frequency, with hesitancy, and nocturia for the past few months. During his physical examination, you note a nontender, non -enlarged prostate with an isolated right posterior lobe nodule. Which of the following options is most appropriate? A. order a serum acid phosphatase level B. initiate prazocin and schedule a follow-up appointment in 6 weeks C. refer the patient for an ultrasound of the prostate and order a PSA level D. reassure the patient and schedule a follow-up appointment in six months E. initiate norfloxacin therapy for seven days and schedule follow-up in twoweeks - 1. C. This patient has an isolated nodule of the prostate gland — cancer until proven otherwise. You should order an ultrasound and a PSA. BPH will present as diffuse enlargement, and not a discrete nodule. 2. Which term is used to describe the characteristic concave or "spoon-shaped" nails of iron deficiency anemia?
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