NRNP 6568 WEEK 5 COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE 2022 questions and answers

• Question 1 1 out of 1 points Martin is a 41 y/o male who comes to the clinic with the following symptoms: fever, chills, and malaise. On physical exam, the NP notes that he has a new murmur that was not present at his last visit and is aware that he has a prosthetic valve. He also has splinter hemorrhages on his nails, and petechiae on his palate. Additional diagnostic criteria for Martin’s presumed diagnosis would include which of the following: Selected Answer: All of the above Answers: Blood cultures Echocardiography Transesophageal echocardiography • Question 2 All of the above A & B only 1 out of 1 points Hemoglobin A1C is the average glucose level of what length of time? Selected Answer: 3 months Answers: 1 month 2 months • Question 3 3 months 4 months 1 out of 1 points Randy is a 29 y/o African American male who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30, does not exercise, and has evidence of metabolic syndrome. His most likely diagnosis is: Selected Answer: DM type 2 Answers: DM type 1 • Question 4 DM type 2 None of the above 1 out of 1 points Diabetes mellitus causes both microvascular and macrovascular damage. All of the following are indications of microvascular damage except: Selected Answer: Atherosclerosis Answers: Retinopathy Nephropathy Neuropathy • Question 5 Atherosclerosis 0 out of 1 points The definition of a UTI is 100,000 CFU/mL of one organism. Selected Answer: Fals e Answers: True Fals e • Question 6 1 out of 1 points Metabolic syndrome is characterized by all the following traits except Selected Answer: Hypoglycemia Answers: Obesity Hypertension Dyslipidemia • Question 7 Hypoglycemia 1 out of 1 points Mike is a 56 y/o male who lives in an abandoned building with about 40 other people who are homeless. He comes to the clinic with a social worker who describes his symptoms as: a cough, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, fever and tachypnea. In your physical exam, you learn that he has some consolidation in the lower lobes with an audible friction rub. To treat Mike’s problem, the most appropriate pharmacological agent would be: Selected Answer: Macrolide Answers: Levofloxacin • Question 8 Macrolide Cefoxitin Moxifloxacin 0 out of 1 points Joan is a 39 y/o female who presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of: 3-day history of fever (101 F degrees), chills, n & v, and flank pain. During the physical exam, the NP notices that Joan has CVA tenderness. In a urine check, the NP notes that she has many leukocytes, hematuria, WBC casts, and mild proteinuria. Complications for Joan would include all the following except: Selected Answer: None of the above Answers: Shock Renal failure • Question 9