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Nurs663O Final-Exams-1 Latest 2021

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NURS663O FINAL-EXAMS-1 LATEST 2021 Attempt Score 72 out of 75 points Time Elapsed 1 hour, 15 minutes out of 2 hours Results Displayed Submitted Answers • Question 1 1 out of 1 points What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity? Selected Answer: C. Antipsychotics • Question 2 1 out of 1 points The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism? Selected Answer: D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics • Question 3 1 out of 1 points The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics? Selected Answer: C. The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy. • Question 4

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NURS663O FINAL-EXAMS-1 LATEST 2021




NURS663O FINAL-EXAMS-1
LATEST 2021

, Attempt Score 72 out of 75 points
Time Elapsed 1 hour, 15 minutes out of 2 hours
Results Displayed Submitted Answers

 Question
1 1 out of 1
points
What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage
the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity?




Selected Answer: C.
Antipsychotics




 Question
2

,1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic
behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper
some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism?




Selected Answer: D.
Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics


 Question
3

, 1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors
in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics?



Selected Answer: C.
The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy.


 Question
4

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