NR 507 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE VERSION 2
1. Types of immunity ch 7 & 8
a. Innate- natural epithelial barrier and inflammation the make innate
resistance and protection pg. 191 Innate immunity includes two lines
of defense: Natural barriers and inflammation.
i. Natural barriers- physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers
at the body’s surfaces
ii. Inflamation- associated with infection usually initiates an
adaptive process that results in a long-term and very effective
immunity to the infecting microorganism, referred to a
adaptive, acquired or specific immunity. Use of the Epithelial
cells with no memory function involved.
b. Adaptive/ acquired- immune response or immunity, after innate and
inflammation, Third line of defense, initiated when innate immune
system signals the cells of adaptive immunity. There is a delay
between primary exposure to antigen and maximum response,
however there is immediate action against secondary exposure.
Response is specific toward antigen. Involves T lymphocytes, B
Lymphocytes, macrophages, and dentric cells. Specific immunologic
memory by T and B lymphocytes
i. Active (Acquired) -after natural exposure to an antigen or after
immunization pg. 227
ii. Passive (Acquired)- preformed antibodies or t lymphocytes are
transferred rom a donor to the recipient, maternal to fetus, or
bone marrow transplant pg. 227
Questions
What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses
the placenta?
Passive-aquired immunity
The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?
IgA
A student nurse asks the clinician which cells are most primary in a
patient's immunity. What is the clinician's best answer?
Lymphocytes.
A nurse recalls humoral immunity is generated through the process of:
, producing antibodies.
While taking a health history, if a person has resistance to a disease
from natural exposure to an antigen, how would the nurse document
this form of immunity?
Active acquired
What type of immunity will the nurse expect in an individual who is
given a vaccine?
Active acquired immunity
A new mother asks the nurse about immunity of her newborn as she is
breastfeeding. The nurse's response should include a discussion on
which type of immunity?
Passive
The nurse has been explaining to a student nurse about the different
types of immunity. Which response indicates that the student nurse
has a good understanding of adaptive immunity?
Both the humoral and cell-mediated immunity
develop memory cells
Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before
activation of adaptive immunity by
natural killer cells
The primary immune response ________.
has a lag period while B cells proliferate and
differentiate into plasma cells
Which of the following is true about the number of binding sites per
functional antibody unit?
IgM contains 10 binding sites.
Which cell of the immune system is absolutely required for an
adaptive immune response?
Helper T cell
The adaptive immune system involves three major cell types: antigen-
presenting cells, T cells, which constitute cell- mediated immunity,
and B cells, which govern humoral immunity.
The nurse understands that the function of IgG is as what?
A bond with target cells and a promoter of
phagocytosis
The nurse understands that which type of immunity is the longest
acting?
Natural active
, Natural killer cells are specialized lymphocytes that are one of the
major parts of which immunity?
Innate
2. Alveolar ventilation/perfusion- pg. 1239 Ch 34 Effective gas exchange
depends on an approximately even distribution of gas (ventilation) and blood
(perfusion) in all portion s of the lungs. The lungs are suspended from the
hila in the thoracic cavity. When the individual is in an upright position,
gravity pulls the lungs down toward the diaphragm and compresses their
lower portions or bases.
a. Ratio between the amount of air getting into the alveoli and the
amount of blood being sent to the lungs.
Questions
A consequence of alveolar hypoxia is:
Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction
The pressure required to inflate an alveolus is inversely related to:
Alveolus radius
The nurse is describing the movement of blood into and out of the
capillary beds of the lungs to the body organs and tissues. What term
should the nurse use to describe this process?
Perfusion
A pulmonologist is discussing the base of the lungs with staff. Which
information should be included? At the base of the lungs:
Arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure
When the pulmonologist discusses the condition in which a series of
alveoli in the left lower lo
be receive adequate ventilation but do not have adequate perfusion,
which statement indicates the nurse understands this condition? When
this occurs in a patient it is called:
Alveolar dead space
Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor for in a
patient with hypoventilation?
hypercapnia
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of emphysema. Which
information should the nurse include? Emphysema results in:
, the destruction of alveolar septa and air trapping
3. Dermatologic conditions and terminology ch. 46 pg. 1620,
a. macules- freckles, flat moles, change in color, less than1 cm,
b. nevi- moles pg. 1641,
c. pityriasis rosea- benign self-limiting inflammatory disorder that
occurs in young adults, with seasonal peaks spring and fall. Harmful
in pregnancy. Associated with a virus, starts with a herald patch,
circular. Salmon pink, and demarcated, usually on the trunk, acyclovir
and erythromycin, and corticosteroid creams for itching. Should go
away within a few months.
d. Papule - An elevated, firm, circumscribed area less than 1 cm in
diameter, Wart (verruca), elevated moles, lichen planus, fibroma,
insect bite
e. Patch - A flat, nonpalpable, irregular-shaped macule more than 1 cm
in diameter, Vitiligo, port-wine stains, mongolian spots, café-au-lait
spots
f. Plaque- Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with flat top surface greater
than 1 cm in diameter, Psoriasis, seborrheic and actinic keratosis
g. Wheal - Elevated, irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid,
transient; variable diameter, Insect bites, urticaria, allergic reaction
h. Nodule- Elevated, firm, circumscribed lesion; deeper in dermis than a
papule; 1-2 cm in diameter, Erythema nodosum, lipomas
i. Tumor- Elevated, solid lesion; may be clearly demarcated; deeper in
dermis; greater than 2 cm in diameter, Neoplasms, benign tumor,
lipoma, neurofibroma, hemangioma
j. Vesicle- Elevated, circumscribed, superficial, does not extend into
dermis; filled with serous fluid; less than 1 cm in diameter, Varicella
(chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles), herpes simplex
k. Bulla - Vesicle greater than 1 cm in diameter, Blister, pemphigus
vulgaris
l. Pustule- Elevated, superficial lesion; similar to a vesicle but filled
with purulent fluid, Impetigo, acne
1. Types of immunity ch 7 & 8
a. Innate- natural epithelial barrier and inflammation the make innate
resistance and protection pg. 191 Innate immunity includes two lines
of defense: Natural barriers and inflammation.
i. Natural barriers- physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers
at the body’s surfaces
ii. Inflamation- associated with infection usually initiates an
adaptive process that results in a long-term and very effective
immunity to the infecting microorganism, referred to a
adaptive, acquired or specific immunity. Use of the Epithelial
cells with no memory function involved.
b. Adaptive/ acquired- immune response or immunity, after innate and
inflammation, Third line of defense, initiated when innate immune
system signals the cells of adaptive immunity. There is a delay
between primary exposure to antigen and maximum response,
however there is immediate action against secondary exposure.
Response is specific toward antigen. Involves T lymphocytes, B
Lymphocytes, macrophages, and dentric cells. Specific immunologic
memory by T and B lymphocytes
i. Active (Acquired) -after natural exposure to an antigen or after
immunization pg. 227
ii. Passive (Acquired)- preformed antibodies or t lymphocytes are
transferred rom a donor to the recipient, maternal to fetus, or
bone marrow transplant pg. 227
Questions
What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses
the placenta?
Passive-aquired immunity
The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?
IgA
A student nurse asks the clinician which cells are most primary in a
patient's immunity. What is the clinician's best answer?
Lymphocytes.
A nurse recalls humoral immunity is generated through the process of:
, producing antibodies.
While taking a health history, if a person has resistance to a disease
from natural exposure to an antigen, how would the nurse document
this form of immunity?
Active acquired
What type of immunity will the nurse expect in an individual who is
given a vaccine?
Active acquired immunity
A new mother asks the nurse about immunity of her newborn as she is
breastfeeding. The nurse's response should include a discussion on
which type of immunity?
Passive
The nurse has been explaining to a student nurse about the different
types of immunity. Which response indicates that the student nurse
has a good understanding of adaptive immunity?
Both the humoral and cell-mediated immunity
develop memory cells
Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before
activation of adaptive immunity by
natural killer cells
The primary immune response ________.
has a lag period while B cells proliferate and
differentiate into plasma cells
Which of the following is true about the number of binding sites per
functional antibody unit?
IgM contains 10 binding sites.
Which cell of the immune system is absolutely required for an
adaptive immune response?
Helper T cell
The adaptive immune system involves three major cell types: antigen-
presenting cells, T cells, which constitute cell- mediated immunity,
and B cells, which govern humoral immunity.
The nurse understands that the function of IgG is as what?
A bond with target cells and a promoter of
phagocytosis
The nurse understands that which type of immunity is the longest
acting?
Natural active
, Natural killer cells are specialized lymphocytes that are one of the
major parts of which immunity?
Innate
2. Alveolar ventilation/perfusion- pg. 1239 Ch 34 Effective gas exchange
depends on an approximately even distribution of gas (ventilation) and blood
(perfusion) in all portion s of the lungs. The lungs are suspended from the
hila in the thoracic cavity. When the individual is in an upright position,
gravity pulls the lungs down toward the diaphragm and compresses their
lower portions or bases.
a. Ratio between the amount of air getting into the alveoli and the
amount of blood being sent to the lungs.
Questions
A consequence of alveolar hypoxia is:
Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction
The pressure required to inflate an alveolus is inversely related to:
Alveolus radius
The nurse is describing the movement of blood into and out of the
capillary beds of the lungs to the body organs and tissues. What term
should the nurse use to describe this process?
Perfusion
A pulmonologist is discussing the base of the lungs with staff. Which
information should be included? At the base of the lungs:
Arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure
When the pulmonologist discusses the condition in which a series of
alveoli in the left lower lo
be receive adequate ventilation but do not have adequate perfusion,
which statement indicates the nurse understands this condition? When
this occurs in a patient it is called:
Alveolar dead space
Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor for in a
patient with hypoventilation?
hypercapnia
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of emphysema. Which
information should the nurse include? Emphysema results in:
, the destruction of alveolar septa and air trapping
3. Dermatologic conditions and terminology ch. 46 pg. 1620,
a. macules- freckles, flat moles, change in color, less than1 cm,
b. nevi- moles pg. 1641,
c. pityriasis rosea- benign self-limiting inflammatory disorder that
occurs in young adults, with seasonal peaks spring and fall. Harmful
in pregnancy. Associated with a virus, starts with a herald patch,
circular. Salmon pink, and demarcated, usually on the trunk, acyclovir
and erythromycin, and corticosteroid creams for itching. Should go
away within a few months.
d. Papule - An elevated, firm, circumscribed area less than 1 cm in
diameter, Wart (verruca), elevated moles, lichen planus, fibroma,
insect bite
e. Patch - A flat, nonpalpable, irregular-shaped macule more than 1 cm
in diameter, Vitiligo, port-wine stains, mongolian spots, café-au-lait
spots
f. Plaque- Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with flat top surface greater
than 1 cm in diameter, Psoriasis, seborrheic and actinic keratosis
g. Wheal - Elevated, irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid,
transient; variable diameter, Insect bites, urticaria, allergic reaction
h. Nodule- Elevated, firm, circumscribed lesion; deeper in dermis than a
papule; 1-2 cm in diameter, Erythema nodosum, lipomas
i. Tumor- Elevated, solid lesion; may be clearly demarcated; deeper in
dermis; greater than 2 cm in diameter, Neoplasms, benign tumor,
lipoma, neurofibroma, hemangioma
j. Vesicle- Elevated, circumscribed, superficial, does not extend into
dermis; filled with serous fluid; less than 1 cm in diameter, Varicella
(chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles), herpes simplex
k. Bulla - Vesicle greater than 1 cm in diameter, Blister, pemphigus
vulgaris
l. Pustule- Elevated, superficial lesion; similar to a vesicle but filled
with purulent fluid, Impetigo, acne
