OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank
Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
* = Correct answer
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following would be considered a symptom?
A. blood pressure reading of 150/90 mm Hg
B. body ache and chills*
C. fever of 39 C
D. heart rate of 120 bpm
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: N/A
2. Which of the following would be considered a sign?
A. blurry vision
B. body ache and chills
C. burning sensation during urination
D. gross hematuria (visible presence of blood in urine)*
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: N/A
3. Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial disease?
A. acquiring Giardia while drinking from a stream during a camping trip
B. acquiring Listeria after eating at a public restaurant
C. acquiring MRSA after touching a locker door handle after an already infected individual
did so
D. obtaining a Pseudomonas respiratory infection during a recent visit to the hospital*
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: 23
4. Sickle cell anemia can be classified as which type of disease?
A. idiopathic
B. infectious, communicable
C. infectious, noncommunicable
D. noninfectious*
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: N/A
5. Which of the following is not a zoonotic disease?
A. rabies
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Page 1 of 19
,OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank
Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
C. typhoid*
D. yellow fever
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: 23
6. What period of disease describes when the patient begins to feel general signs and
symptoms?
A. incubation period
B. period of convalescence
C. period of illness
D. prodromal period*
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: 23
7. During which period of disease is a patient most susceptible to developing a secondary
infection?
A. incubation period
B. period of convalescence
C. period of decline*
D. prodromal period
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 23
Examine the graph shown below and then answer questions 8 and 9.
8. Examine the graph and determine the approximate ID50 of the virus.
A. 10 particles
B. 5000 particles
C. 13,000 particles*
D. cannot be determined from the data collected
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 10, 23, 28b, 29, 36
Page 2 of 19
, OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank
Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
9. Examine the graph and determine the LD50 of the virus.
A. 10 particles
B. 5000 particles
C. 13,000 particles
D. cannot be determined from the data collected*
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 23, 28b, 29, 36
10. Identify which pathogen is the least virulent on the basis of ID50.
A. pathogen A with an ID50 of 1000 cells*
B. pathogen B with an ID50 of 50 cells
C. pathogen C with an ID50 of 1 cell
D. pathogenicity cannot be determined from ID50 values
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 23
11. Which of the following is the definition of pathogenicity?
A. the ability of a microbial agent to cause disease*
B. the ability of a microbial agent to cause infection
C. the ability of a microbial agent to prevent disease
D. the ability of a microbial agent to produce an antimicrobial compound
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: 23
12. Which pathogen cannot pass the blood–placenta barrier and infect a fetus?
A. Herpes simplex virus 1
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Salmonella typhi*
D. Toxoplasma gondii
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 23
13. Which of the following is a common secondary fungal disease?
A. giardiasis
B. histoplasmosis
C. oral thrush*
D. syphilis
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 23
14. Which statement properly describes how Salmonella typhi enters host cells?
Page 3 of 19
Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
* = Correct answer
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following would be considered a symptom?
A. blood pressure reading of 150/90 mm Hg
B. body ache and chills*
C. fever of 39 C
D. heart rate of 120 bpm
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: N/A
2. Which of the following would be considered a sign?
A. blurry vision
B. body ache and chills
C. burning sensation during urination
D. gross hematuria (visible presence of blood in urine)*
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: N/A
3. Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial disease?
A. acquiring Giardia while drinking from a stream during a camping trip
B. acquiring Listeria after eating at a public restaurant
C. acquiring MRSA after touching a locker door handle after an already infected individual
did so
D. obtaining a Pseudomonas respiratory infection during a recent visit to the hospital*
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: 23
4. Sickle cell anemia can be classified as which type of disease?
A. idiopathic
B. infectious, communicable
C. infectious, noncommunicable
D. noninfectious*
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: N/A
5. Which of the following is not a zoonotic disease?
A. rabies
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Page 1 of 19
,OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank
Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
C. typhoid*
D. yellow fever
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: 23
6. What period of disease describes when the patient begins to feel general signs and
symptoms?
A. incubation period
B. period of convalescence
C. period of illness
D. prodromal period*
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: 23
7. During which period of disease is a patient most susceptible to developing a secondary
infection?
A. incubation period
B. period of convalescence
C. period of decline*
D. prodromal period
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 23
Examine the graph shown below and then answer questions 8 and 9.
8. Examine the graph and determine the approximate ID50 of the virus.
A. 10 particles
B. 5000 particles
C. 13,000 particles*
D. cannot be determined from the data collected
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 10, 23, 28b, 29, 36
Page 2 of 19
, OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank
Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
9. Examine the graph and determine the LD50 of the virus.
A. 10 particles
B. 5000 particles
C. 13,000 particles
D. cannot be determined from the data collected*
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 23, 28b, 29, 36
10. Identify which pathogen is the least virulent on the basis of ID50.
A. pathogen A with an ID50 of 1000 cells*
B. pathogen B with an ID50 of 50 cells
C. pathogen C with an ID50 of 1 cell
D. pathogenicity cannot be determined from ID50 values
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 23
11. Which of the following is the definition of pathogenicity?
A. the ability of a microbial agent to cause disease*
B. the ability of a microbial agent to cause infection
C. the ability of a microbial agent to prevent disease
D. the ability of a microbial agent to produce an antimicrobial compound
Difficulty: Easy
ASM Standard: 23
12. Which pathogen cannot pass the blood–placenta barrier and infect a fetus?
A. Herpes simplex virus 1
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Salmonella typhi*
D. Toxoplasma gondii
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 23
13. Which of the following is a common secondary fungal disease?
A. giardiasis
B. histoplasmosis
C. oral thrush*
D. syphilis
Difficulty: Moderate
ASM Standard: 23
14. Which statement properly describes how Salmonella typhi enters host cells?
Page 3 of 19
