Exam (elaborations) Test Bank - Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 12th Edition, by Bryan Derrickson, Gerald Tortora

TEST BANK with Complete Questions and Solutions. To clarify, this is the TEST BANK, not the textbook. You get immediate access to download your test bank. You will receive a complete test bank; in other words, all chapters will be there. Test banks come in PDF format; therefore, you do not need specialized software to open them. Exam (elaborations) Test Bank - Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 12th Edition, by Bryan Derrickson, Gerald Tortora Testbank Chapter 1. An Introduction to the Human Body Multiple Choice 1. This is the study of the functions of body structures. a. Anatomy This is the study of the functions of body structures. a. Anatomy b. Physiology c. Dissection d. Histology e. Immunology Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 1.1 2. This is defined as a group of cells with similar structure and function. a. Tissue b. Organ c. Molecules d. Compounds e. Organism Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 1.2 3. Using your fingers to find your pulse on your wrist is an example of a. Auscultation b. Palpation c. Responsiveness d. Gross anatomy e. Physiologist Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.2 4. Percussion techniques can be used to determine a. Heart beats b. Pulse rate c. Amplify sounds d. Fluid in the lungs e. Enlarged organs Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.2 5. This is the sum of all cellular processes that occur in the body. a. Metabolism b. Anabolism c. Catabolism d. Auscultation e. Palpation Ans: A Difficulty: hard Feedback: 1.3 6. List the basic processes of life. Ans: The basic processes of life include metabolism, responsiveness, movement, growth, differentiation and reproduction. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.3 7. This is the regulation of body conditions within normal limits. a. Palpation b. Percussion c. Homeostasis d. Autopsy e. Histology Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 1.4 8. The systems that provide homeostasis are: a. Cardiovascular and Integumentary b. Nervous system and Endocrine c. Cardiovascular and respiratory systems d. Respiratory and muscular systems e. Urinary and integumentary systems Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 1.4 9. This body fluid directly affects the proper functioning of cells. a. Lymph b. Blood c. Interstitial fluid d. Aqueous humor e. Vitreous body Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 10. Name the differences between a positive and a negative feedback system. Ans: A positive feedback system will strengthen or reinforce a change in one of the body’s controlled conditions while a negative feedback system will reverse a change in a controlled condition. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 11. This is the structure of a feedback system that receives output from the control center. a. Receptor b. Body fluids c. Brain d. Effector e. Afferent Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 12. This is the structure of a feedback system that provides input to the control center. a. Receptor b. Muscle c. Brain d. Effector e. Efferent Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 13. A condition NOT regulated by a negative feedback loop would be: a. Childbirth b. Body temperature c. Blood pressure d. Heart rate e. Blood sugar Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 14. This is a change in body function that can be measured objectively. a. Symptom b. Disorder c. Disturbance d. Disease e. Sign Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 Essay 15. Describe the anatomical position. Ans: In the anatomical position the subject stands erect facing the observer with the head level and the eyes facing forward. The feet are flat on the floor and directed forward and the arms are at the sides with the palms turned forward. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 Multiple Choice 16. In which cavity is the brain located? a. Cranial cavity b. Vertebral cavity c. Abdominal cavity d. Pericardial cavity e. Pleural cavity Ans: A Difficulty: Easy Feedback: 1.5 17. In which cavity are the lungs located? a. Cranial cavity b. Vertebral cavity c. Abdominal cavity d. Pericardial cavity e. Pleural cavity Ans: E Difficulty: Easy Feedback: 1.5 18. In which cavity is the stomach located? a. Cranial cavity b. Vertebral cavity c. Abdominal cavity d. Pericardial cavity e. Pleural cavity Ans: C Difficulty: Easy Feedback: 1.5 19. This cavity is inferior to the abdominopelvic cavity. a. Vertebral canal b. Cranial cavity c. Abdominal cavity d. Pericardial cavity e. Pelvic cavity Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 20. Which cavity would include the heart? a. Cranial cavity b. Vertebral cavity c. Abdominal cavity d. Pericardial cavity e. Pleural cavity Ans: D Difficulty: Easy Feedback: 1.5 21. The function of the secretions of the serous membrane is to: a. Separate the thoracic and abdominal cavities b. Protect the central nervous system c. Prevent infection d. Reduce friction between organs e. Carry nervous impulses Ans: D Difficulty: Medium Feedback: 1.5 22. This plane divides the body into right and left halves. a. Frontal b. Sagittal c. Transverse d. Oblique e. Coronal Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 23. This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior halves. a. Frontal b. Sagittal c. Transverse d. Oblique e. Midsagittal Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 24. A transverse plane will cut a body or organ into a. Anterior and posterior b. Left and right c. Superior and inferior d. At an angle e. Unequal left and right sides Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 25. This directional term means farthest from the midline. a. Medial b. Anterior c. Proximal d. Deep e. Lateral Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 26. This directional term means farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk or farther from the origination of a structure. a. Deep b. Contralateral c. Lateral d. Cephalic e. Distal Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 27. This directional term is the opposite of deep. a. Superficial b. Superior c. Inferior d. Distal e. Proximal Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.6 28. Choose the directional term that would make the sentence correct. The heart is _____ to the liver. a. Inferior b. Anterior c. Contralateral d. Superior e. Superficial Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 29. Choose the directional term that would make the sentence correct: The sternum is ____ to the heart. a. Posterior b. Anterior c. Inferior d. Superior e. Lateral Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 30. Which of the following organs is not found in the abdominal cavity? a. Stomach b. Spleen c. Liver d. Gallbladder e. Diaphragm Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 31. This covers the viscera within the thoracic and abdominal cavities and lines the walls of the thorax and abdomen. a. Pericardium b. Pleura c. Mediastinum d. Diaphragm e. Serous membrane Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 32. Where on the diagram is the femoral area? a. D b. E c. F d. J e. K Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 33. Where on the diagram is the sacral area? a. C b. D c. E d. I e. J Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 34. Where on the diagram is the cervical area? a. C b. E c. J d. K e. A Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 35. Where on the diagram is the brachial area? a. C b. E c. I d. K e. D Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 36. Where on the diagram is the popliteal area? a. H b. I c. J d. D e. E Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 37. The liver is ______ to the sternum. a. Lateral b. Medial c. Proximal d. Distal e. Superior Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 38. The stomach is ____ to the bladder. a. Lateral b. Medial c. Distal d. Inferior e. Superior Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 39. The humerus is _____ to the scapula. a. Proximal b. Distal c. Medial d. Superior e. Anterior Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 40. Which plane is parasagittal? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 41. Which plane is frontal? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 42. Which plane is transverse? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 43. Which plane is oblique? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 Essay 44. Name the cavities of the trunk and the serous membranes that line them. Ans: The four cavities are the pericardial, pleural, abdominal and pelvic. The pericardial membrane is lined by the pericardium. The pleura lines the pleural cavity. The abdominal and pelvic cavities are lined by the peritoneum. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 45. List the eleven systems of the human body. Ans: The eleven system of the human body include the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, digestive, urinary, respiratory, immune and lymphatic, cardiovascular, endocrine, and reproductive systems. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.2 46. Name the structural levels of the body and describe each level. Ans: The chemical level consists of atoms and molecules which are formed from the atoms. The cell level consists of cells which are the smallests form of life. The tissue level consists of groups of cells that work to provide a single function. The organ level consists of organs, constructed of different types of tissue, that can provide several different specific functions. The systems consist of one to many organs that are interlinked in general functions. The organism is made up of all of the systems which work to provide homeostasis. Difficulty: Hard Feedback: 1.2 47. List and briefly describe the six basic life processes. Ans: The six basic life processes include metabolism, which is the sum of all chemical processes in the body. Responsiveness is the body’s ability to detect and respond to internal and external stimuli. Movement includes motion of an individual cell to the entire body. Growth means an increase in body size or an increase in the number of cells. Differentiation is the process from taking a cell from unspecialized to specialized. Reproduction refers to formation of new cells for growth and repair or production of a new individual. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 1.3 48. Describe a feedback system and list the components. Ans: A feedback loop is a cycle of events in which the status of the body condition is monitored, evaluated and changed to maintain homeostasis. A feedback system will include a receptor that detects the stimuli, a control central that receives the input from the receptor and generates an output and an effector that that produces a response. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 Testbank Chapter 2. The Chemical Level of Organization Multiple Choice 1. What are the major elements found in the body? a. Nitrogen, oxygen, calcium, sodium b. Hydrogen, carbon, phosphorus, calcium c. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen d. Oxygen, nitrogen, potassium, calcium e. Potassium, phosphorus, sodium, hydrogen Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 2. The subatomic particles that make up atoms include: a. Neutrons, quarks, muons b. Protons, neutrons, electrons c. Muons, positons, neutrons d. Electrons, quarks, protons e. Positons, protons, neutrons Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 3. Which of the following particles has a neutral charge? a. Neutron b. Electron c. Proton d. All of the above Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 4. What region of an atom contains the protons and neutrons? a. Cloud b. Nucleus c. Element d. Ring e. Shell Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 5. This is the number of protons or electrons. a. Mass number b. Atomic number c. Isotope d. Valence shell e. None of the above Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 6. As an atoms nucleus decays, it will emit radiation. This is seen in a. Compounds b. Cations c. Anions d. Isotopes e. Molecules Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.1 7. This refers to the atomic weight of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element. a. Mass number b. Atomic number c. Atomic mass d. Ionic mass e. Covalent mass Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.1 8. Describe a beneficial use of radiation?. Ans: Radiation can be used for imaging purposes, create tracers and treatment of cancers by destroying cancer cells. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.1 Essay 9. Briefly describe the octet rule. Ans: One atom is more likely to interact with another atom if doing so will leave both atoms with eight electrons in their valence shells. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.1 Multiple Choice 10. Which of the following particles plays a role in creating chemical bonds? a. Neutron b. Electron c. Proton d. All of the above Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.2 11. This is a negatively charged atom. a. Superoxide b. Isotope c. Catalyst d. Ion e. Valence Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.2 12. Which of the below provide an electrical current?. a. Isotope b. Ionic molecule c. Compound d. Electrolyte e. Valence molecule Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.5 13. This type of bond requires a sharing of electrons. a. Covalent b. Ionic c. Hydrogen d. Atomic e. Electronic Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.2 14. This is the type of bond between the atoms forming water a. Nonpolar covalent b. Polar covalent c. Hydrogen d. Ionic e. Atomic Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.2 Essay 15. Describe a hydrogen bond. Ans: Hydrogen bonds form between the slightly positively charged hydrogen atom and a slightly negatively charged atom, mostly oxygen or nitrogen. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.2 Multiple Choice 16. Which of the following bonds provides the three dimensional structure of large molecules like proteins and DNA? a. Nonpolar covalent b. Polar covalent c. Hydrogen d. Ionic e. Atomic Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 17. This occurs when new bonds form or old bonds break between atoms. a. Ions b. Electrolytes c. Isotopes d. Chemical reaction e. Compounds Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.2 18. This is defined as the capacity to do work. a. Metabolism b. Electrolytes c. Chemical reaction d. Concentration e. Energy Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.3 Essay 19. Describe the law of conservation of energy. Ans: Energy cannot be created or destroyed but it may be converted from one form to another form. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.3 Multiple Choice 20. This type of reaction will absorb more energy that it releases. a. Exergonic b. Endergonic c. Potential d. Kinetic e. Activation Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.3 21. An enzyme acts to a. Raise the activation energy needed b. Lower the activation energy needed c. Convert the activation energy into potential d. Convert the activation energy into kinetic e. Break a chemical reaction Ans: b Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.3 Essay 22. Describe three factors that increase the rate of chemical reactions. Ans: Three factors that promote reaction rates are the presence of enzymes (catalysts), increased concentration of reactants and increased temperature. Difficulty: Hard Feedback: 2.3 Multiple Choice 23. This type of reaction will combine reactants to produce larger products. a. Synthesis b. Decomposition c. Potential d. Exchange e. Activated Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.3 24. This type of reaction will break larger reactants to produce smaller products. a. Synthesis b. Decomposition c. Potential d. Exchange e. Activated Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.7 25. This is the most abundant and most important inorganic compound in the body. a. Water b. Oxygen gas c. Carbon dioxide d. Glucose e. DNA Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.4 26. A solute that dissolves in water is. a. Hydrophobic b. Hydrostatic c. Hydroamoure d. Hydrophillic e. Hydrozone Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.4 27. In a typical body solution, the solvent is. a. Glucose b. Lipids c. Carbon dioxide d. Water e. Electrolyte Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.4 Essay 28. Describe the functions of water in the body. Ans: Water is a solvent that allows transportation of solutes. Water acts in hydrolysis reactions to split reactants. Water can transport heat and, through sweating, releasing heat from the body. Water is used as a lubricant, particularly in serous fluids. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 2.4 Multiple Choice 29. A solution with a pH value smaller than 7 would be a(n) a. Base b. Salt c. Acid d. alkaline e. concentrate Ans: c Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.4 30. A substance that adds or removes Hydrogen ions from a solution is a(n) a. Base b. Salt c. Acid d. alkaline e. buffer Ans: e Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2. 10 31. Which of the following is considered a proton donor? a. Acid b. Base c. Salt d. Organic compound e. Colloid Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.4 32. These are specific arrangements of atoms that confer characteristic chemical properties upon organic molecules. a. Acids b. Bases c. Carbons d. Functional groups e. Isomers Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 33. Glucose and fructose both have the chemical formula C6H12O6 so they are considered a. Isotopes b. Isometrics c. Isolates d. Isomers e. Isotonics Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 34. Which of the following is a monosaccaride that is important in producing energy. a. Glucose b. Sucrose c. Lactose d. Ribose e. Deoxyribose Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 35. The major energy storage polysaccharide in humans is a. Cellulose b. Ribose c. Lipids d. Fats e. Glycogen Ans: E Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.5 36. This type of triglyceride contains more than one double bond in the fatty acid carbon atoms. a. Saturated b. Monounsaturated c. Polyunsaturated d. Acylglycerols e. Lipoprotein Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 37. This type of lipid is the body’s long term energy storage molecule. a. Steroid b. Phospholipid c. Cholesterol d. Triglyceride e. Lipoprotein Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 38. This type of lipid is used by the body to create hormones. a. Cellulose b. Phospholipid c. Cholesterol d. Triglyceride e. Lipoprotein Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 39. Which of the following is NOT true about phospholipids? a. They contain an glycerol backbone b. The head group is polar c. The molecule is an important part of cell membranes d. The tail groups are nonpolar e. They are a major energy storage lipid Ans: E Difficulty: hard Feedback: 2.5 40. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are considered: a. Amphipathic b. Both Lipids and Eicosanoids c. Eicosanoids d. All of the above Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 Essay 41. Describe what structures comprise an amino acid. Ans: Amino acids contain a central carbon atom, an amino group, an acidic carboxyl group and a side chain. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 42. List the six major functions of proteins. Ans: Proteins can be used for structure, regulation, contraction, immunology, transport and as a catalyst. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 Multiple Choice 43. The primary structure of a protein contains a. Alpha helix b. Beta-pleated sheets c. Substrates d. Amino acids e. All of the above Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 Essay 44. List the three major properties of enzymes. Ans: Enzymes are highly specific, efficient and subject to a variety of cellular controls. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 45. Describe what happens to a protein’s structure and function when it is denatured. Ans: The protein will become unraveled and lose its unique shape. Loss of that shape will destroy the proteins’s function. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 2.5 Multiple Choice 46. Which of the following is a purine? a. Cytosine b. Guanine c. Thymine d. Ribose e. Phosphate Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 47. Which is the function of RNA? a. Produce electrical impulses b. storage of energy c. transfer information for protein synthesis d. store information for protein synthesis e. transport of fluids Ans: c Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 48. Which is the function of DNA? a. Produce chemical signals b. storage of energy c. transfer information for protein synthesis d. store information for protein synthesis e. transport of electrolytes Ans: d Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 49. Which is the function of ATP? a. Produce electrical impulses b. Transfers energy for cell functions c. transfer information for protein synthesis d. store information for protein synthesis e. transport of fluids Ans: b Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 50. What monomer is used to build RNA and DNA? a. fatty acid b. amino acid c. Glucose d. glycerol e. nucleotide Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 51. In the diagram which particles are negatively charged? a. A b. B c. C d. All of the above e. None of the above Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 52. In the diagram, which particles are positively charged? a. A b. B c. C d. All of the above e. None of the above Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2. 53. In the diagram, which particles have no charge? a. A b. B c. C d. All of the above e. None of the above Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 54. Give a brief description of what this diagram represents? Ans: This diagram represents the octet rule in chemical bonding. The octet rule states that two atoms will tend to bond if doing so means that they will both be left with eight electrons in their valence shells. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.2 55. What is this molecule, where can it be found in a eukaryotic cell and what are the special properties of this molecule? Ans: This is a phospholipid found in the plasma membranes of eukaryotic cells. It has a polar hydrophillic head group and a nonpolar hydrophobic tail group making it amphipathic. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 56. Describe what is happening at places 1,2 and 3 in the following figure. Ans: This figure represents how an enzyme works. At number one, the enzyme and substrate come together at the active site of the enzyme forming the enzymesubstrate complex. At number two, the enzyme catalyzes the reaction and transforms the substrate into products. At number three, the reaction is complete and the enzyme remains unchanged and free to catalyze the same reaction again on a new substrate. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 2.5 Multiple Choice 57. In the diagram, which one is a purine? a. A b. B c. E d. Both a and b e. All of the above Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 58. In the diagram, which one is deoxyribose? a. B b. E c. F d. None of the above e. The entire structure is considered a deoxyribose molecule Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 59. In the diagram, where is the pyrimidine? a. A b. B c. E d. F e. None of the above Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 Essay 60. What is the difference between atomic mass, mass number and atomic number? Ans: Atomic number is the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom. Atomic mass is the total mass of all an atoms naturally occurring isotopes. Mass number is the total of a naturally occurring atoms protons and neutrons. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.1 Multiple Choice 61. In the diagram, what pH value represents an acidic solution? a. 12 b. 10 c. 8 d. 6 e. None of the above Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.4 62. In the diagram, what would happen to the concentration of C if the concentration of A increases? a. Increases b. Decreases c. No change Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 Testbank Chapter 3. The Cellular Level of Organization Multiple Choice 1. What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell? a. Plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm b. Plasma membrane, organelles, nucleus c. Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles d. Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus e. Plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.1 Essay 2. Briefly describe the fluid mosaic model. Ans: The fluid mosaic model represents the molecular arrangement of the plasma membrane as an ever moving sea of fluid lipids that contain a mosaic of many different proteins. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.2 Multiple Choice 3. Plasma membranes consist of what three components? a. Phospholipids, glycoproteins, water b. Proteins, cholesterol, fatty acids c. Cholesterol, fatty acids, glycolipids d. Proteins, phospholipids, cholesterol e. Water, proteins, fatty acids Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.2 4. What are the nonpolar parts of a phospholipid? a. Head group b. Tail group c. Both are nonpolar d. Neither are nonpolar Ans: B