IBHRE CEPS Trouble Study Guide - Comprehensive Answer Key

IBHRE CEPS Trouble Study Guide - Comprehensive Answer Key 168. Compared to the the permanent pacemaker, does a temp pacer have constant current or voltage? Also, how much voltage can it generate? 5V or 20V? - answer - Constant current, 20V. (Doubles 9.5V) 171. Which patient with acute MI is most likely to need a temp pacer? Inferior MI, Mobitz I AV Bock Inferior MI, bundle branch block Anterior MI, Mobitz I AV Bock Anterior MI, bundle branch block - answer - Anterior MI, bundle branch block Acute BBB post MI should be seen as a warning and often proceeds CHB. The RCA commonly supplies blood to the AV node making the impact of an Anterior MI more significant 12. For maximum electrical safety, the ECG monitored patient should be _____________, and the monitor chassis should be _______________ or non-conductive. (Grounded vs Ungrounded) - answer - Ungrounded, grounded 34. What channel is responsible for the SA and AV node upstroke? - answer - Ca++ Slow Channel 38. How does gender effect SVT frequency for AVNRT and AVRT? - answer - Women twice as likely to get AVNRT, men twice as likely to get AVRT 39. The plateau (phase 2) occurs on the surface ECG during the_________ , and during mechanical _________________ . - answer - QT interval, Systole 48. The pause after atrial pacing is termed: - answer - Overdrive suppression 49. Most arrhythmias in the EP lab are caused by? a. Vagal response b. Automaticity c. Triggered d. Reentry - answer - Reentry 50. What mechanism causes "triggered" arrhythmias? a. Reentry b. After depolarization c. Automaticity of the atrial tissue d. Automaticity of the ventricular tissue - answer - After depolarization (think R on T) 51. What do the terms EAD and DAD stand for and what arrythmias are they associated with? - answer - EAD - Early after deporization, Torsades DAD - Delayed after depolarization, RVOT VT 55. Which arrhythmia type most closely resembles an "itch of the heart" in acutely ill patients? - answer - Automatic arrhythmias 58. - answer - 59.. - answer - 60. - answer - 61. - answer - 62. - answer - 63. An ambulatory patient is: - answer - Able to walk 67. What does tachypnea mean? - answer - Rapid breathing 75. - answer - 96. - answer - 157. What blade is most often used for the initial subcutaneous tissue incision? (Looking for a number) - answer - #10 scalpel blade 169. The distal electrode of a pacing lead is negative of positive? - answer - Negative (Cat = negative) 170. If you press emergency pacing on the MDT temp pacer, what rate does it pace at? - answer - Whatever rate you have currently programmed. (Not just always 60) 173. A pulse train of 8 paced beats with a fixed cycle length is termed: a. Incremental Pacing b. Decremental Pacing c. Synchronous Pacing d. Asynchronous Pacing - answer - a. Incremental Pacing - Also known as bust pacing 178. The new RF powered transseptal needle that may be used to puncture a fibrotic and aneurysmal atrial septum has: a. Irrigated tip RF electrode b. A mounted ICE transducer c. Side holes for pressure and contrast d. A leading atraumatic J guide wire - answer - c. Side holes for pressure and contrast What are ultrasound transducers comprised of? - answer - Piezoelectric crystal When Doppler ultrasound senses flow away from a transducer, the resulting ultrasound wave has a: a. Higher relative frequency b. Lower relative frequency c. Higher relative amplitude d. Lower relative amplitude - answer - b. Lower relative frequency 183. In cardiovascular doppler, what is the usual target off of which the ultrasound waves are reflected back? a. Plasma eddies b. Red blood cells c. Cardiac veins d. Endocardium and/or epicardium - answer - Red blood cells 188. ICE uses __________ as an injectable contrast agent to view shunts or distinguish the right heart from the left heart chambers - answer - Agitated Saline 196. What type of ICE system shows a 360 degree view? - answer - Mechanical 212. How should you prep the cryoball