NUR 2502 / NUR2502: Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3) Exam 2 with Accurate
Questions & Correct Answers (Verified Answers) and Full Detailed Expert Rationales
| Latest (2026/2027) Updated Version | 100% Guaranteed Pass {JUST RELEASED} -
Rasmussen University
SECTION 1: Evidence-Based Nursing Care for Upper
Respiratory Disorders
Questions 1–30
Head and Neck Cancer, Nasal Disorders, Trauma, Sleep Apnea, and Airway
Management
1. Which risk combination is most strongly associated with cancers of the head and neck?
A) Combined tobacco and heavy alcohol use
B) Seasonal allergies and occasional antihistamine use
C) Low dietary calcium and sedentary behavior
D) Frequent voice rest and increased water intake
Correct Answer: Combined tobacco and heavy alcohol use
Rationale: Tobacco and alcohol have synergistic carcinogenic effects and substantially increase
the risk of head and neck malignancies. Persistent exposure damages mucosal tissues and
promotes malignant cellular changes. The other combinations do not represent major
established preventable risk factors for these cancers.
2. What finding should prompt evaluation for possible laryngeal malignancy?
A) Occasional sneezing for several days
B) Hoarseness persisting for more than two weeks
C) Brief nasal congestion after exercise
D) Intermittent ear popping during air travel
Correct Answer: Hoarseness persisting for more than two weeks
,Rationale: Persistent hoarseness is an important warning sign of laryngeal disease, including
cancer, particularly when it does not resolve with an apparent upper-respiratory infection. Early
evaluation can facilitate diagnosis and treatment. Transient sneezing, congestion, and ear
popping are much less specific for malignancy.
3. When a client newly diagnosed with laryngeal cancer says, “I may not survive this,”
which response is most therapeutic?
A) “You should focus on your treatment plan.”
B) “Have you discussed this with your family?”
C) “Tell me more about your concerns.”
D) “You should avoid thinking negatively.”
Correct Answer: “Tell me more about your concerns.”
Rationale: An open-ended response encourages the client to express fears and allows the nurse
to assess emotional needs without minimizing them. Therapeutic communication begins by
acknowledging the client’s concern and inviting further discussion. The other responses
prematurely redirect the conversation or provide reassurance without first exploring the client’s
feelings.
4. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of an obstructive upper-airway problem?
A) Fine crackles at both lung bases
B) Productive cough with purulent sputum
C) Dullness over a posterior lung field
D) Stridor during inspiration
Correct Answer: Stridor during inspiration
Rationale: Stridor is a harsh, high-pitched sound associated with upper-airway narrowing or
obstruction and requires prompt assessment. Crackles are associated with fluid or secretions in
smaller airways or alveoli. Dullness and purulent sputum suggest other pulmonary processes
rather than acute upper-airway obstruction.
5. A patient with a suspected facial fracture has clear drainage from the nose after trauma.
Which finding is most concerning?
A) A yellow halo developing around the drainage on testing material
B) Mild nasal tenderness
C) Periorbital swelling
,D) Localized bruising
Correct Answer: A yellow halo developing around the drainage on testing material
Rationale: A halo or ring around clear nasal drainage can indicate cerebrospinal fluid, raising
concern for a skull-base fracture and possible communication between the cranial cavity and
nasal passages. This requires prompt evaluation because CSF leakage increases the risk of
serious complications, including meningitis. Bruising and tenderness are common after facial
trauma.
6. Which intervention is appropriate for uncomplicated anterior epistaxis?
A) Place the client supine with the head extended.
B) Apply firm pressure to the soft portion of the nose.
C) Encourage forceful nose blowing to remove clots.
D) Insert a cotton swab deeply into the nasal cavity.
Correct Answer: Apply firm pressure to the soft portion of the nose.
Rationale: Direct pressure over the soft portion of the nose helps compress bleeding vessels and
is an initial intervention for anterior epistaxis. The client should generally sit upright and lean
forward to reduce aspiration of blood. Forceful blowing and deep insertion can worsen tissue
trauma and bleeding.
7. Which postoperative instruction is particularly important after rhinoplasty?
A) Blow the nose frequently to remove secretions.
B) Cough forcefully every hour.
C) Avoid straining, nose blowing, and forceful sneezing.
D) Sleep completely flat for the first several nights.
Correct Answer: Avoid straining, nose blowing, and forceful sneezing.
Rationale: Activities that increase pressure within the nasal passages can promote bleeding and
disrupt surgical repair. Clients are commonly instructed to avoid forceful nose blowing and
straining and to protect the operative area. Appropriate positioning and gentle care help reduce
edema, bleeding, and complications.
8. What is the primary purpose of continuous positive airway pressure for obstructive sleep
apnea?
A) Increase mucus production
, B) Stimulate respiratory infections
C) Reduce pulmonary artery pressure directly
D) Prevent upper-airway collapse during sleep
Correct Answer: Prevent upper-airway collapse during sleep
Rationale: CPAP delivers continuous positive pressure that acts as a pneumatic splint to keep
the upper airway open during sleep. This reduces apnea and improves oxygenation. CPAP does
not directly treat infection or primarily function by increasing mucus production.
9. Which client factor is a major risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea?
A) Obesity
B) Low serum sodium
C) Seasonal rhinitis alone
D) Increased daily fluid intake
Correct Answer: Obesity
Rationale: Obesity is a major risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea because excess tissue
around the upper airway can promote narrowing during sleep. Other contributors include
anatomic abnormalities, smoking, enlarged tonsils, and certain endocrine conditions. Low
sodium and increased fluid intake are not primary causes.
10. Which symptom most strongly suggests sleep apnea rather than uncomplicated insomnia?
A) Difficulty falling asleep once a week
B) Recurrent nighttime awakenings with loud snoring and witnessed pauses
C) Occasional early-morning awakening
D) Preference for sleeping in a quiet room
Correct Answer: Recurrent nighttime awakenings with loud snoring and witnessed pauses
Rationale: Obstructive sleep apnea commonly produces loud snoring, witnessed apneic episodes,
fragmented sleep, and excessive daytime sleepiness. These findings reflect repeated upper-
airway obstruction. Insomnia may cause difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep but does not
characteristically cause witnessed breathing pauses.
11. Which finding after facial trauma requires the most immediate nursing attention?
A) Mild facial edema
Questions & Correct Answers (Verified Answers) and Full Detailed Expert Rationales
| Latest (2026/2027) Updated Version | 100% Guaranteed Pass {JUST RELEASED} -
Rasmussen University
SECTION 1: Evidence-Based Nursing Care for Upper
Respiratory Disorders
Questions 1–30
Head and Neck Cancer, Nasal Disorders, Trauma, Sleep Apnea, and Airway
Management
1. Which risk combination is most strongly associated with cancers of the head and neck?
A) Combined tobacco and heavy alcohol use
B) Seasonal allergies and occasional antihistamine use
C) Low dietary calcium and sedentary behavior
D) Frequent voice rest and increased water intake
Correct Answer: Combined tobacco and heavy alcohol use
Rationale: Tobacco and alcohol have synergistic carcinogenic effects and substantially increase
the risk of head and neck malignancies. Persistent exposure damages mucosal tissues and
promotes malignant cellular changes. The other combinations do not represent major
established preventable risk factors for these cancers.
2. What finding should prompt evaluation for possible laryngeal malignancy?
A) Occasional sneezing for several days
B) Hoarseness persisting for more than two weeks
C) Brief nasal congestion after exercise
D) Intermittent ear popping during air travel
Correct Answer: Hoarseness persisting for more than two weeks
,Rationale: Persistent hoarseness is an important warning sign of laryngeal disease, including
cancer, particularly when it does not resolve with an apparent upper-respiratory infection. Early
evaluation can facilitate diagnosis and treatment. Transient sneezing, congestion, and ear
popping are much less specific for malignancy.
3. When a client newly diagnosed with laryngeal cancer says, “I may not survive this,”
which response is most therapeutic?
A) “You should focus on your treatment plan.”
B) “Have you discussed this with your family?”
C) “Tell me more about your concerns.”
D) “You should avoid thinking negatively.”
Correct Answer: “Tell me more about your concerns.”
Rationale: An open-ended response encourages the client to express fears and allows the nurse
to assess emotional needs without minimizing them. Therapeutic communication begins by
acknowledging the client’s concern and inviting further discussion. The other responses
prematurely redirect the conversation or provide reassurance without first exploring the client’s
feelings.
4. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of an obstructive upper-airway problem?
A) Fine crackles at both lung bases
B) Productive cough with purulent sputum
C) Dullness over a posterior lung field
D) Stridor during inspiration
Correct Answer: Stridor during inspiration
Rationale: Stridor is a harsh, high-pitched sound associated with upper-airway narrowing or
obstruction and requires prompt assessment. Crackles are associated with fluid or secretions in
smaller airways or alveoli. Dullness and purulent sputum suggest other pulmonary processes
rather than acute upper-airway obstruction.
5. A patient with a suspected facial fracture has clear drainage from the nose after trauma.
Which finding is most concerning?
A) A yellow halo developing around the drainage on testing material
B) Mild nasal tenderness
C) Periorbital swelling
,D) Localized bruising
Correct Answer: A yellow halo developing around the drainage on testing material
Rationale: A halo or ring around clear nasal drainage can indicate cerebrospinal fluid, raising
concern for a skull-base fracture and possible communication between the cranial cavity and
nasal passages. This requires prompt evaluation because CSF leakage increases the risk of
serious complications, including meningitis. Bruising and tenderness are common after facial
trauma.
6. Which intervention is appropriate for uncomplicated anterior epistaxis?
A) Place the client supine with the head extended.
B) Apply firm pressure to the soft portion of the nose.
C) Encourage forceful nose blowing to remove clots.
D) Insert a cotton swab deeply into the nasal cavity.
Correct Answer: Apply firm pressure to the soft portion of the nose.
Rationale: Direct pressure over the soft portion of the nose helps compress bleeding vessels and
is an initial intervention for anterior epistaxis. The client should generally sit upright and lean
forward to reduce aspiration of blood. Forceful blowing and deep insertion can worsen tissue
trauma and bleeding.
7. Which postoperative instruction is particularly important after rhinoplasty?
A) Blow the nose frequently to remove secretions.
B) Cough forcefully every hour.
C) Avoid straining, nose blowing, and forceful sneezing.
D) Sleep completely flat for the first several nights.
Correct Answer: Avoid straining, nose blowing, and forceful sneezing.
Rationale: Activities that increase pressure within the nasal passages can promote bleeding and
disrupt surgical repair. Clients are commonly instructed to avoid forceful nose blowing and
straining and to protect the operative area. Appropriate positioning and gentle care help reduce
edema, bleeding, and complications.
8. What is the primary purpose of continuous positive airway pressure for obstructive sleep
apnea?
A) Increase mucus production
, B) Stimulate respiratory infections
C) Reduce pulmonary artery pressure directly
D) Prevent upper-airway collapse during sleep
Correct Answer: Prevent upper-airway collapse during sleep
Rationale: CPAP delivers continuous positive pressure that acts as a pneumatic splint to keep
the upper airway open during sleep. This reduces apnea and improves oxygenation. CPAP does
not directly treat infection or primarily function by increasing mucus production.
9. Which client factor is a major risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea?
A) Obesity
B) Low serum sodium
C) Seasonal rhinitis alone
D) Increased daily fluid intake
Correct Answer: Obesity
Rationale: Obesity is a major risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea because excess tissue
around the upper airway can promote narrowing during sleep. Other contributors include
anatomic abnormalities, smoking, enlarged tonsils, and certain endocrine conditions. Low
sodium and increased fluid intake are not primary causes.
10. Which symptom most strongly suggests sleep apnea rather than uncomplicated insomnia?
A) Difficulty falling asleep once a week
B) Recurrent nighttime awakenings with loud snoring and witnessed pauses
C) Occasional early-morning awakening
D) Preference for sleeping in a quiet room
Correct Answer: Recurrent nighttime awakenings with loud snoring and witnessed pauses
Rationale: Obstructive sleep apnea commonly produces loud snoring, witnessed apneic episodes,
fragmented sleep, and excessive daytime sleepiness. These findings reflect repeated upper-
airway obstruction. Insomnia may cause difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep but does not
characteristically cause witnessed breathing pauses.
11. Which finding after facial trauma requires the most immediate nursing attention?
A) Mild facial edema
