NURS 231 Pathophysiology Final Exam: 100
Practice Questions, Verified Answers &
Rationales | Portage Learning
1. What is the definition of pathophysiology?
A. The study of the structure of the human body
B. The study of the body's responses to changes caused by disease
C. The study of the function of organs and tissues
D. The study of the development of disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pathophysiology is defined as the cellular and organ changes that occur with
disease, as well as the effects these changes have on total body function. It bridges
pathology (structural changes) and physiology (normal function).
2. Which of the following are etiologic factors of disease? (Select all that apply)
A. Biologic agents like bacteria and viruses
B. Physical forces like trauma and burns
C. Chemical agents like poisons and alcohol
D. Genetic inheritance
E. Nutritional excesses or deficiencies
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: The five etiologic factors are: biologic agents, physical forces, chemical agents,
genetic inheritance, and nutritional excesses or deficiencies. These represent the
categories of causes that can lead to disease development.
3. A symptom is best described as:
A. An objective manifestation of disease
B. A subjective complaint reported by the patient
,C. A laboratory finding
D. A physical examination finding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A symptom is a subjective complaint, such as pain, trouble breathing, or
dizziness. A sign is an objective manifestation, such as elevated temperature, swollen
extremity, or changes in pupil size.
4. The diagnostic process requires:
A. Careful history taking only
B. Physical examination only
C. Diagnostic tests only
D. Careful history, physical examination, and sometimes diagnostic tests
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The diagnostic process requires a careful history, physical examination, and
sometimes diagnostic tests to accurately identify the disease process.
5. The proportion of people with a disease who test positive for that disease is:
A. Specificity
B. Sensitivity
C. Validity
D. Reliability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sensitivity is the proportion of people with a disease who are positive for that
disease (true positive rate). Specificity is the proportion of people without the disease who
are negative on a given test.
6. Incidence is defined as:
A. The number of people with a disease in a population at a given time
B. The number of new cases in a population at risk during a specified time
C. The effect of an illness on one's life
D. The cause of death in a population
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Incidence is the number of new cases in a population at risk during a specified
time. Prevalence is the number of people with the disease in a population in a given time.
7. Which type of prevention aims to detect and treat disease early, usually while
asymptomatic?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early, usually while
asymptomatic and curable. Examples include annual Pap smears, blood pressure
screening, and cholesterol screening.
8. All eukaryotic cells have three primary structures. These are the:
A. Nucleus, cytoplasm, and plasma membrane
B. Nucleus, mitochondria, and ribosomes
C. Plasma membrane, mitochondria, and nucleus
D. Cytoplasm, ribosomes, and plasma membrane
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The three primary structures of eukaryotic cells are the nucleus, the cytoplasm,
and the plasma membrane. These structures are essential for cellular function and
regulation.
9. The primary function of the nucleus is to:
A. Synthesize proteins
B. Generate ATP through cellular respiration
C. Store and protect the cell's genetic material (DNA)
D. Package and modify proteins for secretion
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: The nucleus contains DNA and controls cell division (mitosis/meiosis) and
protein synthesis. It serves as the command center of the cell, housing genetic
information.
10. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by an increase in the number of cells in
a tissue or organ?
A. Hypertrophy
B. Atrophy
C. Metaplasia
D. Hyperplasia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number. Hypertrophy is an increase in cell
size; atrophy is a decrease in size or number; metaplasia is the replacement of one cell
type by another.
11. What is the primary mechanism of cell injury caused by free radicals?
A. Lipid peroxidation of membrane lipids and oxidative damage to proteins and DNA
B. Direct inhibition of ATP synthase only
C. Immediate rupture of the nucleus
D. Exclusive damage to mitochondria without membrane effects
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Reactive oxygen species (free radicals) initiate lipid peroxidation, protein
oxidation, and DNA damage, leading to membrane dysfunction and cell injury. This
oxidative stress is a key mechanism in many disease processes.
12. In apoptosis, which family of enzymes is primarily responsible for executing the
orderly disassembly of the cell?
A. Kinases
B. Caspases
C. Phosphatases
D. Helicases
Practice Questions, Verified Answers &
Rationales | Portage Learning
1. What is the definition of pathophysiology?
A. The study of the structure of the human body
B. The study of the body's responses to changes caused by disease
C. The study of the function of organs and tissues
D. The study of the development of disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pathophysiology is defined as the cellular and organ changes that occur with
disease, as well as the effects these changes have on total body function. It bridges
pathology (structural changes) and physiology (normal function).
2. Which of the following are etiologic factors of disease? (Select all that apply)
A. Biologic agents like bacteria and viruses
B. Physical forces like trauma and burns
C. Chemical agents like poisons and alcohol
D. Genetic inheritance
E. Nutritional excesses or deficiencies
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: The five etiologic factors are: biologic agents, physical forces, chemical agents,
genetic inheritance, and nutritional excesses or deficiencies. These represent the
categories of causes that can lead to disease development.
3. A symptom is best described as:
A. An objective manifestation of disease
B. A subjective complaint reported by the patient
,C. A laboratory finding
D. A physical examination finding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A symptom is a subjective complaint, such as pain, trouble breathing, or
dizziness. A sign is an objective manifestation, such as elevated temperature, swollen
extremity, or changes in pupil size.
4. The diagnostic process requires:
A. Careful history taking only
B. Physical examination only
C. Diagnostic tests only
D. Careful history, physical examination, and sometimes diagnostic tests
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The diagnostic process requires a careful history, physical examination, and
sometimes diagnostic tests to accurately identify the disease process.
5. The proportion of people with a disease who test positive for that disease is:
A. Specificity
B. Sensitivity
C. Validity
D. Reliability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sensitivity is the proportion of people with a disease who are positive for that
disease (true positive rate). Specificity is the proportion of people without the disease who
are negative on a given test.
6. Incidence is defined as:
A. The number of people with a disease in a population at a given time
B. The number of new cases in a population at risk during a specified time
C. The effect of an illness on one's life
D. The cause of death in a population
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Incidence is the number of new cases in a population at risk during a specified
time. Prevalence is the number of people with the disease in a population in a given time.
7. Which type of prevention aims to detect and treat disease early, usually while
asymptomatic?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early, usually while
asymptomatic and curable. Examples include annual Pap smears, blood pressure
screening, and cholesterol screening.
8. All eukaryotic cells have three primary structures. These are the:
A. Nucleus, cytoplasm, and plasma membrane
B. Nucleus, mitochondria, and ribosomes
C. Plasma membrane, mitochondria, and nucleus
D. Cytoplasm, ribosomes, and plasma membrane
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The three primary structures of eukaryotic cells are the nucleus, the cytoplasm,
and the plasma membrane. These structures are essential for cellular function and
regulation.
9. The primary function of the nucleus is to:
A. Synthesize proteins
B. Generate ATP through cellular respiration
C. Store and protect the cell's genetic material (DNA)
D. Package and modify proteins for secretion
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: The nucleus contains DNA and controls cell division (mitosis/meiosis) and
protein synthesis. It serves as the command center of the cell, housing genetic
information.
10. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by an increase in the number of cells in
a tissue or organ?
A. Hypertrophy
B. Atrophy
C. Metaplasia
D. Hyperplasia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number. Hypertrophy is an increase in cell
size; atrophy is a decrease in size or number; metaplasia is the replacement of one cell
type by another.
11. What is the primary mechanism of cell injury caused by free radicals?
A. Lipid peroxidation of membrane lipids and oxidative damage to proteins and DNA
B. Direct inhibition of ATP synthase only
C. Immediate rupture of the nucleus
D. Exclusive damage to mitochondria without membrane effects
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Reactive oxygen species (free radicals) initiate lipid peroxidation, protein
oxidation, and DNA damage, leading to membrane dysfunction and cell injury. This
oxidative stress is a key mechanism in many disease processes.
12. In apoptosis, which family of enzymes is primarily responsible for executing the
orderly disassembly of the cell?
A. Kinases
B. Caspases
C. Phosphatases
D. Helicases
