Rationale:
NUR-2392 Exam 2 | Original Practice Exam | 2026/2027 1
, NUR-2392 EXAM 2
Multidimensional Care II
Rasmussen University
100-Question Original Practice Exam
2026/2027 Edition
1. A patient with pneumonia has oxygen saturation of 86% and increasing work of breathing. What is
thenurse's priority?
A) Delay care until sputum culture results
B) Support oxygenation and promptly escalate assessment
C) Provide only routine oral hygiene
D) Encourage ambulation without evaluation
Correct Answer: B) Support oxygenation and promptly escalate assessment
Rationale: Hypoxemia with respiratory distress threatens tissue oxygenation and requires prompt intervention.
2. What finding most strongly suggests worsening respiratory failure?
A) Improved ability to speak
B) Stable respiratory rate and saturation
C) New confusion and rising respiratory effort
D) Comfortable sleep with normal oxygenation
Correct Answer: C) New confusion and rising respiratory effort
Rationale: Mental-status change and increasing effort can signal hypoxemia or hypercapnia.
3. Why should a patient with pneumonia be encouraged to cough and deep breathe when
appropriate?
A) To eliminate the need for prescribed antibiotics
B) To prevent all fever
C) To mobilize secretions and improve ventilation
D) To replace oxygen therapy
Correct Answer: C) To mobilize secretions and improve ventilation
Rationale: Pulmonary hygiene assists secretion clearance and alveolar recruitment.
4. A patient with COPD is increasingly somnolent after deterioration. What should the nurse suspect?
A) Definite relief of airflow obstruction
B) Uncomplicated seasonal allergy
C) Normal expected sleepiness
D) Potential carbon dioxide retention and respiratory failure
Correct Answer:
Rationale:
NUR-2392 Exam 2 | Original Practice Exam | 2026/2027 2
, D) Potential carbon dioxide retention and respiratory failure
Somnolence with respiratory illness can reflect hypercapnia or hypoxemia and needs urgent evaluation.
5. What teaching is appropriate for pursed-lip breathing in COPD?
A) Hold breath for a minute after every inhalation
B) Breathe rapidly through the mouth
C) Exhale slowly through narrowed lips to help limit airway collapse
D) Avoid all diaphragmatic movement
Correct Answer: C) Exhale slowly through narrowed lips to help limit airway collapse
Rationale: Controlled prolonged exhalation can reduce dynamic airway collapse and dyspnea.
6. Why assess inhaler technique in a patient with poorly controlled COPD?
A) Incorrect technique reduces medication delivery
B) All inhalers work identically without technique
C) Technique affects only oral tablets
D) Inhalers never require coordination
Correct Answer: A) Incorrect technique reduces medication delivery
Rationale: Effective delivery depends on device-specific inhalation and preparation steps.
7. What adverse effect may occur with inhaled anticholinergic bronchodilators?
A) Profound hypoglycemia as the usual effect
B) Dry mouth
C) Irreversible hearing loss
D) Severe neutropenia
Correct Answer: B) Dry mouth
Rationale: Antimuscarinic action can cause dry mouth and related anticholinergic symptoms.
8. A patient with asthma cannot finish sentences and is using accessory muscles. What is needed?
A) Emergency management of a severe exacerbation
B) Routine annual review
C) Only a glass of water
D) Deferral until next scheduled peak-flow visit
Correct Answer: A) Emergency management of a severe exacerbation
Rationale: Limited speech and marked effort can indicate impending respiratory failure.
9. Why rinse the mouth after an inhaled corticosteroid?
A) To reduce oral candidiasis risk
Correct Answer:
Rationale:
NUR-2392 Exam 2 | Original Practice Exam | 2026/2027 3