INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
NURS711 — Cardiovascular Renal and Endocrine Drug Review
2026–2027
NURS 711 | Pharmacotherapies for Nursing Practice
Institution / scope: University of South Carolina
Contents: 100 independently authored educational practice questions with one keyed answer and a rationale per question;
quick answer key at the end.
Original practice questions
Cardio
1. What is the chief bleeding safety concern when assessing direct oral anticoagulants?
A. Assume reversal is never possible
B. Use INR to adjust every DOAC dose
C. Assess active bleeding, renal function, interactions, and adherence
D. Double a missed dose automatically
Correct Answer: C — Assess active bleeding, renal function, interactions, and adherence
Rationale: DOACs require agent-specific assessment of exposure, renal function, and bleeding risks.
2. Which medication combination can trigger severe hypotension?
A. An iron supplement with water
B. A nitrate with a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
C. A topical emollient with soap
D. A stool softener with dietary fiber
Correct Answer: B — A nitrate with a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
Rationale: Both nitrates and PDE5 inhibitors enhance vasodilation and can cause profound hypotension together.
3. A patient with heart failure takes digoxin and furosemide. Labs show K 2.9 mEq/L and the patient reports halos,
nausea, and palpitations. What is the priority?
A. Continue both drugs without assessment
B. Notify the treating team urgently and evaluate digoxin toxicity and electrolytes
C. Increase exercise
D. Give a large OTC potassium dose without authorization
Correct Answer: B — Notify the treating team urgently and evaluate digoxin toxicity and electrolytes
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity and dysrhythmia.
4. Rationale check — consider this prescribing decision: A patient started a diuretic and complains of nocturia.
Which simple counseling may help, when clinically suitable? Which rationale best supports the safest clinical
decision?
A. Urinary analgesics reliably eradicate bacterial infection.
B. Adjusting administration timing may reduce nocturia while preserving the diuretic's therapeutic purpose.
C. Every positive urine culture always requires antibiotics.
D. Renal function and tissue penetration never change urinary drug selection.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 1
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
Correct Answer: B — Adjusting administration timing may reduce nocturia while preserving the diuretic's therapeutic
purpose.
Rationale: This rationale accurately identifies the relevant pharmacologic mechanism, clinical risk, or prescribing
principle. Adjusting administration timing may reduce nocturia while preserving the diuretic's therapeutic purpose.
5. Rationale check — consider this prescribing decision: A patient takes warfarin and a new antimicrobial is
prescribed. What should be considered? Which rationale best supports the safest clinical decision?
A. Antimicrobials can alter warfarin response; INR and bleeding-risk monitoring should be individualized.
B. Culture results, host factors, and resistance never influence treatment.
C. Longer and broader antibiotic therapy is always safer.
D. Antibiotics are indicated for every viral respiratory illness.
Correct Answer: A — Antimicrobials can alter warfarin response; INR and bleeding-risk monitoring should be
individualized.
Rationale: This rationale accurately identifies the relevant pharmacologic mechanism, clinical risk, or prescribing
principle. Antimicrobials can alter warfarin response; INR and bleeding-risk monitoring should be individualized.
6. Rationale check — consider this prescribing decision: A person taking lithium starts a thiazide diuretic. Which
interaction is important? Which rationale best supports the safest clinical decision?
A. Severe neurologic changes after a medicine are always harmless.
B. Thiazide-induced changes in sodium handling may reduce lithium clearance and increase toxicity.
C. Psychotropic medications can always be stopped abruptly without harm.
D. Interactions, monitoring, and overdose precautions are unnecessary.
Correct Answer: B — Thiazide-induced changes in sodium handling may reduce lithium clearance and increase
toxicity.
Rationale: This rationale accurately identifies the relevant pharmacologic mechanism, clinical risk, or prescribing
principle. Thiazide-induced changes in sodium handling may reduce lithium clearance and increase toxicity.
7. Why is it important to use vitamin-K-containing foods consistently while taking warfarin?
A. Large abrupt changes can alter anticoagulation control
B. Food intake eliminates the need for INR measurement
C. Vitamin K foods must always be entirely avoided
D. All green vegetables reverse warfarin immediately
Correct Answer: A — Large abrupt changes can alter anticoagulation control
Rationale: Consistent dietary vitamin K supports stable warfarin effects alongside INR monitoring.
Endocrine
8. A patient taking SGLT2 therapy has nausea, malaise, and fast breathing even with modest glucose elevation. What
requires consideration?
A. Possible euglycemic ketoacidosis
B. Guaranteed normal drug response
C. Simple post-meal drowsiness
D. Isolated skin dryness only
Correct Answer: A — Possible euglycemic ketoacidosis
Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors can rarely contribute to ketoacidosis without markedly elevated glucose.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 2
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
9. A patient received rapid-acting insulin but the meal tray has been delayed. What is the immediate concern?
A. Hypoglycemia from insulin without carbohydrate intake
B. Fluid overload from insulin
C. Guaranteed hyperglycemia
D. Acute antibiotic allergy
Correct Answer: A — Hypoglycemia from insulin without carbohydrate intake
Rationale: Prandial insulin timing must be coordinated with meal availability to avoid hypoglycemia.
10. A patient with personal history of medullary thyroid carcinoma asks about semaglutide. What should be
reviewed?
A. Automatic use at maximum dose
B. No need to take tumor history
C. The relevant boxed-warning contraindication in the product labeling
D. Guaranteed cancer prevention
Correct Answer: C — The relevant boxed-warning contraindication in the product labeling
Rationale: Some semaglutide products have a boxed warning and contraindication for personal/family MTC or MEN2.
Principles
11. A child receiving an oral liquid medication is prescribed 250 mg. Bottle reads 125 mg/5 mL. Parent has only a
kitchen teaspoon. Which action improves safety?
A. Calculate 10 mL and use a marked oral syringe
B. Estimate two large spoonfuls
C. Pour directly from bottle
D. Use a spoon without measuring
Correct Answer: A — Calculate 10 mL and use a marked oral syringe
Rationale: 250 mg ÷ (125 mg/5 mL) = 10 mL; calibrated oral syringes support accurate delivery.
12. A child weighs 22 kg. Order: 10 mg/kg/dose. What is the dose?
A. 220 mg
B. 110 mg
C. 440 mg
D. 22 mg
Correct Answer: A — 220 mg
Rationale: 22 kg × 10 mg/kg = 220 mg per dose; check indicated maximum.
13. A contact lens wearer has severe eye pain, photophobia, and decreased vision. What is the correct priority?
A. Urgent ophthalmologic evaluation for possible keratitis
B. Use steroid drops without assessment
C. Treat as simple dryness without examination
D. Wait a month for routine review
Correct Answer: A — Urgent ophthalmologic evaluation for possible keratitis
Rationale: Contact lens–related corneal infection can threaten vision; prompt evaluation is essential.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 3
NURS711 — Cardiovascular Renal and Endocrine Drug Review
2026–2027
NURS 711 | Pharmacotherapies for Nursing Practice
Institution / scope: University of South Carolina
Contents: 100 independently authored educational practice questions with one keyed answer and a rationale per question;
quick answer key at the end.
Original practice questions
Cardio
1. What is the chief bleeding safety concern when assessing direct oral anticoagulants?
A. Assume reversal is never possible
B. Use INR to adjust every DOAC dose
C. Assess active bleeding, renal function, interactions, and adherence
D. Double a missed dose automatically
Correct Answer: C — Assess active bleeding, renal function, interactions, and adherence
Rationale: DOACs require agent-specific assessment of exposure, renal function, and bleeding risks.
2. Which medication combination can trigger severe hypotension?
A. An iron supplement with water
B. A nitrate with a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
C. A topical emollient with soap
D. A stool softener with dietary fiber
Correct Answer: B — A nitrate with a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
Rationale: Both nitrates and PDE5 inhibitors enhance vasodilation and can cause profound hypotension together.
3. A patient with heart failure takes digoxin and furosemide. Labs show K 2.9 mEq/L and the patient reports halos,
nausea, and palpitations. What is the priority?
A. Continue both drugs without assessment
B. Notify the treating team urgently and evaluate digoxin toxicity and electrolytes
C. Increase exercise
D. Give a large OTC potassium dose without authorization
Correct Answer: B — Notify the treating team urgently and evaluate digoxin toxicity and electrolytes
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity and dysrhythmia.
4. Rationale check — consider this prescribing decision: A patient started a diuretic and complains of nocturia.
Which simple counseling may help, when clinically suitable? Which rationale best supports the safest clinical
decision?
A. Urinary analgesics reliably eradicate bacterial infection.
B. Adjusting administration timing may reduce nocturia while preserving the diuretic's therapeutic purpose.
C. Every positive urine culture always requires antibiotics.
D. Renal function and tissue penetration never change urinary drug selection.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 1
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
Correct Answer: B — Adjusting administration timing may reduce nocturia while preserving the diuretic's therapeutic
purpose.
Rationale: This rationale accurately identifies the relevant pharmacologic mechanism, clinical risk, or prescribing
principle. Adjusting administration timing may reduce nocturia while preserving the diuretic's therapeutic purpose.
5. Rationale check — consider this prescribing decision: A patient takes warfarin and a new antimicrobial is
prescribed. What should be considered? Which rationale best supports the safest clinical decision?
A. Antimicrobials can alter warfarin response; INR and bleeding-risk monitoring should be individualized.
B. Culture results, host factors, and resistance never influence treatment.
C. Longer and broader antibiotic therapy is always safer.
D. Antibiotics are indicated for every viral respiratory illness.
Correct Answer: A — Antimicrobials can alter warfarin response; INR and bleeding-risk monitoring should be
individualized.
Rationale: This rationale accurately identifies the relevant pharmacologic mechanism, clinical risk, or prescribing
principle. Antimicrobials can alter warfarin response; INR and bleeding-risk monitoring should be individualized.
6. Rationale check — consider this prescribing decision: A person taking lithium starts a thiazide diuretic. Which
interaction is important? Which rationale best supports the safest clinical decision?
A. Severe neurologic changes after a medicine are always harmless.
B. Thiazide-induced changes in sodium handling may reduce lithium clearance and increase toxicity.
C. Psychotropic medications can always be stopped abruptly without harm.
D. Interactions, monitoring, and overdose precautions are unnecessary.
Correct Answer: B — Thiazide-induced changes in sodium handling may reduce lithium clearance and increase
toxicity.
Rationale: This rationale accurately identifies the relevant pharmacologic mechanism, clinical risk, or prescribing
principle. Thiazide-induced changes in sodium handling may reduce lithium clearance and increase toxicity.
7. Why is it important to use vitamin-K-containing foods consistently while taking warfarin?
A. Large abrupt changes can alter anticoagulation control
B. Food intake eliminates the need for INR measurement
C. Vitamin K foods must always be entirely avoided
D. All green vegetables reverse warfarin immediately
Correct Answer: A — Large abrupt changes can alter anticoagulation control
Rationale: Consistent dietary vitamin K supports stable warfarin effects alongside INR monitoring.
Endocrine
8. A patient taking SGLT2 therapy has nausea, malaise, and fast breathing even with modest glucose elevation. What
requires consideration?
A. Possible euglycemic ketoacidosis
B. Guaranteed normal drug response
C. Simple post-meal drowsiness
D. Isolated skin dryness only
Correct Answer: A — Possible euglycemic ketoacidosis
Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors can rarely contribute to ketoacidosis without markedly elevated glucose.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 2
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
9. A patient received rapid-acting insulin but the meal tray has been delayed. What is the immediate concern?
A. Hypoglycemia from insulin without carbohydrate intake
B. Fluid overload from insulin
C. Guaranteed hyperglycemia
D. Acute antibiotic allergy
Correct Answer: A — Hypoglycemia from insulin without carbohydrate intake
Rationale: Prandial insulin timing must be coordinated with meal availability to avoid hypoglycemia.
10. A patient with personal history of medullary thyroid carcinoma asks about semaglutide. What should be
reviewed?
A. Automatic use at maximum dose
B. No need to take tumor history
C. The relevant boxed-warning contraindication in the product labeling
D. Guaranteed cancer prevention
Correct Answer: C — The relevant boxed-warning contraindication in the product labeling
Rationale: Some semaglutide products have a boxed warning and contraindication for personal/family MTC or MEN2.
Principles
11. A child receiving an oral liquid medication is prescribed 250 mg. Bottle reads 125 mg/5 mL. Parent has only a
kitchen teaspoon. Which action improves safety?
A. Calculate 10 mL and use a marked oral syringe
B. Estimate two large spoonfuls
C. Pour directly from bottle
D. Use a spoon without measuring
Correct Answer: A — Calculate 10 mL and use a marked oral syringe
Rationale: 250 mg ÷ (125 mg/5 mL) = 10 mL; calibrated oral syringes support accurate delivery.
12. A child weighs 22 kg. Order: 10 mg/kg/dose. What is the dose?
A. 220 mg
B. 110 mg
C. 440 mg
D. 22 mg
Correct Answer: A — 220 mg
Rationale: 22 kg × 10 mg/kg = 220 mg per dose; check indicated maximum.
13. A contact lens wearer has severe eye pain, photophobia, and decreased vision. What is the correct priority?
A. Urgent ophthalmologic evaluation for possible keratitis
B. Use steroid drops without assessment
C. Treat as simple dryness without examination
D. Wait a month for routine review
Correct Answer: A — Urgent ophthalmologic evaluation for possible keratitis
Rationale: Contact lens–related corneal infection can threaten vision; prompt evaluation is essential.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 3
