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VATI Green Light Comprehensive Form A (PDF) Question Bank with Answers & Rationales | NCLEX PN Review Study Guide-LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR JUST RELEASED

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VATI Green Light Comprehensive Form A (PDF) Question Bank with Answers & Rationales | NCLEX PN Review Study Guide-LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR JUST RELEASED

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VATI Green Light Comprehensive Form A (PDF)-
Question Bank with Answers & Rationales | NCLEX-
PN Review Study Guide-LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR-
JUST RELEASED

SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE (Q1–Q30)

Delegation, prioritization, assignment, and legal/ethical principles.

Q1. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning client assignments. Which client
should be assigned to the LPN?
A) A client newly admitted with acute GI bleeding requiring fluid resuscitation
B) A client who is 2 days post-op from a hip replacement needing routine wound care
C) A client receiving their first dose of IV chemotherapy
D) A client with new-onset chest pain requiring STAT cardiac enzymes

Answer: B
Rationale: The LPN scope includes caring for stable clients with predictable outcomes and
performing routine wound care. Clients with acute GI bleeding, first-dose IV chemotherapy,
and new-onset chest pain require the assessment and intervention skills of an RN.

Q2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about advance directives. Which statement
by the client indicates understanding?
A) "I will need to have my attorney present when I sign the document."
B) "My family can make changes to the document after I sign it."
C) "I can change my advance directives at any time."
D) "Advance directives can only be completed in the hospital."

,Answer: C
Rationale: Clients have the right to change or revoke advance directives at any time while
competent. An attorney is not required, and family members cannot make changes.

Q3. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which client should the nurse
see first?
A) A client whose urinary output was 100 mL for the past 12 hours
B) A client requesting pain medication for chronic arthritis
C) A client who needs discharge teaching about wound care
D) A client who is scheduled for a chest X-ray in 1 hour

Answer: A
Rationale: A urinary output of 100 mL over 12 hours indicates oliguria and possible renal
impairment, requiring immediate assessment. Pain management and discharge teaching
can wait.

Q4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for four clients. Using the ABC framework,
which client should the nurse assess FIRST?
A) A client with a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg reporting a headache
B) A client with chronic COPD reporting increased dyspnea and an SpO₂ of 88% on room
air
C) A client with type 2 diabetes requesting a snack before bedtime
D) A client post-op day 1 reporting incisional pain rated 6/10

Answer: B
Rationale: The ABC framework prioritizes Airway, Breathing, and Circulation. A COPD client
with dyspnea and SpO₂ 88% has respiratory compromise requiring immediate intervention.

Q5. A charge nurse is delegating tasks to a UAP. Which task is APPROPRIATE to
delegate?

,A) Administering oral acetaminophen to a stable client
B) Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic client about foot care
C) Measuring vital signs and recording intake/output on stable clients
D) Performing the initial head-to-toe admission assessment

Answer: C
Rationale: Measuring vital signs and recording I/O on stable clients is within the UAP's
scope. Medication administration, teaching, and initial assessments require a licensed
nurse.

Q6. A nurse enters a patient's room and finds the patient pale, diaphoretic, and lightheaded
after ambulation. What is the nurse's first action?
A) Give the patient a glass of water
B) Assist patient to a supine position and assess airway/breathing/circulation
C) Call family to come in immediately
D) Document findings and continue rounds

Answer: B
Rationale: The first priority is patient safety and ABCs. Positioning the patient supine and
assessing ABCs addresses potential syncope or hypotension, which are the most
immediate threats.

Q7. A nurse notices smoke coming from a client's room and discovers a fire in the
wastebasket. After moving the client to safety, which of the following is the priority action?
A) Notify the facility operator
B) Close the fire doors on the unit
C) Turn off oxygen sources
D) Put out the fire with the appropriate extinguisher

, Answer: A
Rationale: After rescuing the client, the next priority in the RACE sequence is to activate the
alarm (Alert), which is done by notifying the facility operator.

Q8. A nurse is admitting a client who has antisocial personality disorder. Which of the
following client behaviors should the nurse identify as consistent with this disorder?
A) Compulsive attention to details
B) Avoids interacting with others
C) Uses others for personal gain
D) Socially awkward in group situations

Answer: C
Rationale: Individuals with antisocial personality disorder often exhibit manipulative
behaviors, using others to achieve personal goals. This is a hallmark of the disorder.

Q9. A nurse in a residential mental health facility is planning care for a new client who has
obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to include
in the plan of care?
A) Work with the client to create a flexible daily schedule
B) Gradually decrease the time allowed for ritualistic behavior
C) Offer solutions to assist in problem solving
D) Teach the client to meditate about obsessive thoughts

Answer: B
Rationale: Gradually decreasing the time allowed for ritualistic behavior helps the client limit
these behaviors in a supportive, structured manner.

Q10. A nurse is caring for a client who has been placed in restraints. Which of the following
is a priority nursing intervention?
A) Document the client's behavior every 15 minutes

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