NU 216 Exam 2 | Adult Health I (2026) Q&A | Herzing University
1. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform first during a physical examination?
A) Palpation
B) Percussion
C) Inspection
D) Auscultation
Correct Answer: Inspection
Rationale: Inspection is always the first assessment technique performed, allowing the nurse to
observe symmetry, color, shape, and other visible characteristics before touching the patient.
Palpation, percussion, and auscultation follow inspection (except in the abdomen, where
auscultation precedes percussion and palpation). Beginning with inspection establishes a
baseline and guides subsequent techniques.
2. During percussion, what does the pitch of the sound primarily reflect?
A) The intensity of the sound
B) The number of vibrations per second
C) The length of time the note lingers
D) The overtones produced by the tissue
Correct Answer: The number of vibrations per second
Rationale: Pitch refers to the frequency of sound waves, or the number of vibrations per second.
Intensity describes loudness or softness, duration describes how long the sound lingers, and
overtones contribute to quality or timbre. Understanding pitch helps the nurse distinguish
between air-filled, fluid-filled, and solid structures during percussion.
,3. Which part of the hand is best for detecting vibration during palpation?
A) Fingertips
B) Index finger and thumb in opposition
C) Dorsum of the hand
D) Ulnar surface of the hand
Correct Answer: Ulnar surface of the hand
Rationale: The ulnar surface of the hand is most sensitive to vibration, such as fremitus. The
fingertips are best for fine tactile discrimination like texture and pulsation, the dorsum is best
for temperature, and the thumb and index finger in opposition assess firmness. Using the
correct surface improves assessment accuracy.
4. Which stethoscope component is designed to detect soft, low-pitched sounds?
A) The diaphragm
B) The bell
C) The earpieces
D) The tubing
Correct Answer: The bell
Rationale: The bell of the stethoscope is designed to detect soft, low-pitched sounds such as
heart murmurs and bruits. The diaphragm is better for high-pitched sounds like breath sounds
and normal heart sounds. Applying the bell lightly to the skin allows low-frequency vibrations to
be heard.
5. When performing indirect percussion, which finger is struck?
A) The ulnar surface of the stationary finger
,B) The middle joint of the stationary finger
C) The distal interphalangeal joint of the stationary finger
D) Wherever the stationary finger contacts the skin
Correct Answer: The distal interphalangeal joint of the stationary finger
Rationale: In indirect percussion, the middle finger of the dominant hand strikes the distal
interphalangeal joint of the stationary middle finger of the other hand. Striking the joint
produces a clear sound and avoids discomfort. The other locations are not the standard
technique for indirect percussion.
6. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is used to assess the eyes of a patient with undiluted
pupils?
A) The grid aperture
B) The slit aperture
C) The small aperture
D) The large aperture
Correct Answer: The small aperture
Rationale: The small aperture is used for undilated pupils because it narrows the beam of light,
reducing glare and improving visualization of the fundus. The large aperture is used for dilated
pupils, the slit aperture assesses anterior chamber depth, and the grid aperture estimates lesion
size. Selecting the correct aperture improves examination accuracy.
7. At the conclusion of the physical examination, what should the examiner do?
A) Document findings before leaving the examining room
B) Have findings confirmed by another practitioner
, C) Relate objective findings to subjective findings for accuracy
D) Summarize findings to the patient
Correct Answer: Summarize findings to the patient
Rationale: At the conclusion of the examination, the examiner should summarize the findings to
the patient, explaining what was observed and what may happen next. Documentation should
occur promptly but not necessarily before leaving the room. Confirmation by another
practitioner and relating objective to subjective data are important but not the concluding step.
8. When the examiner enters the room and the infant patient is asleep, which assessment
should be performed next?
A) Height and weight
B) Blood pressure
C) Heart, lung, and abdomen
D) Temperature
Correct Answer: Heart, lung, and abdomen
Rationale: When an infant is asleep, the examiner should perform the least disturbing
assessments first, such as auscultating the heart and lungs and palpating the abdomen, because
these are best performed while the infant is quiet. Height, weight, blood pressure, and
temperature are more likely to awaken the infant and should be performed later. This sequence
minimizes distress.
9. The sequence of examination changes from head-to-toe to thorax-first for which age group?
A) Infant
B) Preschool child
C) School-age child
1. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform first during a physical examination?
A) Palpation
B) Percussion
C) Inspection
D) Auscultation
Correct Answer: Inspection
Rationale: Inspection is always the first assessment technique performed, allowing the nurse to
observe symmetry, color, shape, and other visible characteristics before touching the patient.
Palpation, percussion, and auscultation follow inspection (except in the abdomen, where
auscultation precedes percussion and palpation). Beginning with inspection establishes a
baseline and guides subsequent techniques.
2. During percussion, what does the pitch of the sound primarily reflect?
A) The intensity of the sound
B) The number of vibrations per second
C) The length of time the note lingers
D) The overtones produced by the tissue
Correct Answer: The number of vibrations per second
Rationale: Pitch refers to the frequency of sound waves, or the number of vibrations per second.
Intensity describes loudness or softness, duration describes how long the sound lingers, and
overtones contribute to quality or timbre. Understanding pitch helps the nurse distinguish
between air-filled, fluid-filled, and solid structures during percussion.
,3. Which part of the hand is best for detecting vibration during palpation?
A) Fingertips
B) Index finger and thumb in opposition
C) Dorsum of the hand
D) Ulnar surface of the hand
Correct Answer: Ulnar surface of the hand
Rationale: The ulnar surface of the hand is most sensitive to vibration, such as fremitus. The
fingertips are best for fine tactile discrimination like texture and pulsation, the dorsum is best
for temperature, and the thumb and index finger in opposition assess firmness. Using the
correct surface improves assessment accuracy.
4. Which stethoscope component is designed to detect soft, low-pitched sounds?
A) The diaphragm
B) The bell
C) The earpieces
D) The tubing
Correct Answer: The bell
Rationale: The bell of the stethoscope is designed to detect soft, low-pitched sounds such as
heart murmurs and bruits. The diaphragm is better for high-pitched sounds like breath sounds
and normal heart sounds. Applying the bell lightly to the skin allows low-frequency vibrations to
be heard.
5. When performing indirect percussion, which finger is struck?
A) The ulnar surface of the stationary finger
,B) The middle joint of the stationary finger
C) The distal interphalangeal joint of the stationary finger
D) Wherever the stationary finger contacts the skin
Correct Answer: The distal interphalangeal joint of the stationary finger
Rationale: In indirect percussion, the middle finger of the dominant hand strikes the distal
interphalangeal joint of the stationary middle finger of the other hand. Striking the joint
produces a clear sound and avoids discomfort. The other locations are not the standard
technique for indirect percussion.
6. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is used to assess the eyes of a patient with undiluted
pupils?
A) The grid aperture
B) The slit aperture
C) The small aperture
D) The large aperture
Correct Answer: The small aperture
Rationale: The small aperture is used for undilated pupils because it narrows the beam of light,
reducing glare and improving visualization of the fundus. The large aperture is used for dilated
pupils, the slit aperture assesses anterior chamber depth, and the grid aperture estimates lesion
size. Selecting the correct aperture improves examination accuracy.
7. At the conclusion of the physical examination, what should the examiner do?
A) Document findings before leaving the examining room
B) Have findings confirmed by another practitioner
, C) Relate objective findings to subjective findings for accuracy
D) Summarize findings to the patient
Correct Answer: Summarize findings to the patient
Rationale: At the conclusion of the examination, the examiner should summarize the findings to
the patient, explaining what was observed and what may happen next. Documentation should
occur promptly but not necessarily before leaving the room. Confirmation by another
practitioner and relating objective to subjective data are important but not the concluding step.
8. When the examiner enters the room and the infant patient is asleep, which assessment
should be performed next?
A) Height and weight
B) Blood pressure
C) Heart, lung, and abdomen
D) Temperature
Correct Answer: Heart, lung, and abdomen
Rationale: When an infant is asleep, the examiner should perform the least disturbing
assessments first, such as auscultating the heart and lungs and palpating the abdomen, because
these are best performed while the infant is quiet. Height, weight, blood pressure, and
temperature are more likely to awaken the infant and should be performed later. This sequence
minimizes distress.
9. The sequence of examination changes from head-to-toe to thorax-first for which age group?
A) Infant
B) Preschool child
C) School-age child
