NUR 283 Comp Exam Comprehensive
170 Study Questions and Answers 2026
Updated 100% Correct
SECTION 1: EMERGENCY & CRITICAL CARE
Question 1. The nurse working in the ED has received the following
prescriptions for a newly admitted client. Which prescription should the nurse
implement FIRST?
A. Initiate IV sodium for a client admitted with diarrhea and dehydration who has a
serum sodium level of 134.
B. Initiate IV potassium for a client admitted with diarrhea and dehydration
who has a serum potassium level of 2.9.
C. Administer oral potassium for a client with a potassium level of 3.4.
D. Administer IV furosemide for a client with a potassium level of 5.2.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L is severe hypokalemia, which can lead
to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should prioritize replacing
potassium (typically via IV infusion with cardiac monitoring) over other non-life-
threatening electrolyte imbalances.
Question 2. A nurse is caring for a male client who has a deep partial-
thickness and a full-thickness burn to 45% of the lower body. It would be a
PRIORITY for the nurse to notify the provider if the client has:
A. A heart rate of 110 bpm.
B. A urinary output of 45 ml over the past two hours.
C. A temperature of 100.2°F.
D. A blood pressure of 105/65 mmHg.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The expected urinary output for an adult is at least 30 mL/hr (or 0.5
mL/kg/hr). An output of 45 mL over 2 hours (22.5 mL/hr) indicates oliguria and
poor renal perfusion, which is a hallmark of hypovolemic shock in burn victims.
This requires immediate provider notification.
,Question 3. The nurse is assessing clients at the scene of a mass casualty
disaster and is prioritizing care based on the disaster triage tag system. Which
of the following clients should be transported to the health care facility
FIRST?
A. A client who has an open fracture of the femur and is crying loudly.
B. A client who has a head injury and is unresponsive with irregular respirations.
C. The client who has multiple compound fractures and is reporting chest
pain.
D. A client with a sprained ankle who is ambulating independently.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In mass casualty triage, clients are prioritized based on the ABCs.
Chest pain with compound fractures indicates potential internal bleeding or
thoracic injury (breathing/circulation issues). The unresponsive client with
irregular respirations would likely be categorized as expectant (black tag) if
resources are scarce, but the client with chest pain is a high priority (red tag) for
immediate transport.
Question 4. The charge nurse in the ED is reviewing the care provided for
recently admitted clients. Which of the following reflects implementation of an
accepted standard of care?
A. Placing a client who has suspected Haemophilus influenzae on contact
precautions.
B. Placing a client who has suspected Haemophilus influenzae on droplet
precautions.
C. Placing a client who has suspected Haemophilus influenzae on airborne
precautions.
D. Placing a client who has suspected Haemophilus influenzae in a negative
pressure room.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haemophilus influenzae is transmitted via respiratory droplets.
Therefore, droplet precautions (surgical mask, standard precautions) are required,
not airborne or contact.
Question 5. The nurse is working on a crisis hotline speaking with a client who
states, "I just took an entire bottle of amitriptyline." Which of the following
,responses should the nurse INITIALLY make to the client?
A. "You should go to sleep and call me back if you feel worse."
B. "Are you trying to get attention from your family?"
C. "I'm glad you called, and I want to send an ambulance to help you."
D. "Can you tell me why you took the pills?"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant. An overdose is a life-
threatening medical emergency that can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias. The
priority is to ensure the client's physical safety by dispatching emergency medical
services immediately.
Question 6. The nurse is monitoring a client following a thoracentesis. It
would be a priority for the nurse to notify the primary health care provider if
the client develops:
A. A respiratory rate that has decreased from 18 to 14.
B. A heart rate that has increased from 95 to 110 bpm.
C. A blood pressure that has decreased from 130/80 to 120/75.
D. Mild pain at the insertion site.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sudden increase in heart rate (tachycardia) following a thoracentesis
can indicate internal bleeding, hypovolemia, or a pneumothorax. This is a
significant change that requires prompt evaluation.
Question 7. A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. The client is
not eating well but denies any nausea or vomiting. Which of the following
would be best for the nurse to suggest to the client?
A. A large steak with a baked potato.
B. A high-fiber salad with beans.
C. Chicken, green beans, and cottage cheese.
D. Spicy chili with crackers.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients undergoing chemotherapy need adequate protein and calories
for healing. Small, frequent meals that are high in protein (chicken, cottage
cheese) and easy to digest are best, especially when the client has a poor appetite.
Spicy or overly fibrous foods may cause GI upset.
, Question 8. Which medication should be given for a patient in V-tach
(ventricular tachycardia) with a pulse?
A. Atropine
B. Amiodarone
C. Adenosine
D. Digoxin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication commonly used to treat
stable ventricular tachycardia. Adenosine is used for supraventricular tachycardia
(SVT), and atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
Question 9. The nurse is talking with a patient who has Multiple Sclerosis
(MS). What would need follow-up by the nurse?
A. The patient schedules rest periods during the day.
B. The patient avoids crowded places to prevent infection.
C. The patient takes hot showers to relieve muscle spasms.
D. The patient uses a cane when walking long distances.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Heat (such as hot showers, hot tubs, or overheating) can temporarily
worsen MS symptoms (Uhthoff's phenomenon). Patients should be advised to avoid
extreme heat and use cooling measures instead.
Question 10. A patient had a colostomy created 6 hours ago. The stoma
appears dark red, dry, and flaccid with a small amount of mucous drained in
the bag. What is the first priority?
A. Document the finding as a normal post-op appearance.
B. Call the provider.
C. Apply a new ostomy bag immediately.
D. Irrigate the stoma with warm water.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A healthy stoma should be beefy red and moist. A dark red, dry, or
flaccid stoma indicates ischemia and necrosis. This is a medical emergency
requiring immediate provider notification.
SECTION 2: FUNDAMENTALS & PRIORITIZATION
170 Study Questions and Answers 2026
Updated 100% Correct
SECTION 1: EMERGENCY & CRITICAL CARE
Question 1. The nurse working in the ED has received the following
prescriptions for a newly admitted client. Which prescription should the nurse
implement FIRST?
A. Initiate IV sodium for a client admitted with diarrhea and dehydration who has a
serum sodium level of 134.
B. Initiate IV potassium for a client admitted with diarrhea and dehydration
who has a serum potassium level of 2.9.
C. Administer oral potassium for a client with a potassium level of 3.4.
D. Administer IV furosemide for a client with a potassium level of 5.2.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L is severe hypokalemia, which can lead
to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should prioritize replacing
potassium (typically via IV infusion with cardiac monitoring) over other non-life-
threatening electrolyte imbalances.
Question 2. A nurse is caring for a male client who has a deep partial-
thickness and a full-thickness burn to 45% of the lower body. It would be a
PRIORITY for the nurse to notify the provider if the client has:
A. A heart rate of 110 bpm.
B. A urinary output of 45 ml over the past two hours.
C. A temperature of 100.2°F.
D. A blood pressure of 105/65 mmHg.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The expected urinary output for an adult is at least 30 mL/hr (or 0.5
mL/kg/hr). An output of 45 mL over 2 hours (22.5 mL/hr) indicates oliguria and
poor renal perfusion, which is a hallmark of hypovolemic shock in burn victims.
This requires immediate provider notification.
,Question 3. The nurse is assessing clients at the scene of a mass casualty
disaster and is prioritizing care based on the disaster triage tag system. Which
of the following clients should be transported to the health care facility
FIRST?
A. A client who has an open fracture of the femur and is crying loudly.
B. A client who has a head injury and is unresponsive with irregular respirations.
C. The client who has multiple compound fractures and is reporting chest
pain.
D. A client with a sprained ankle who is ambulating independently.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In mass casualty triage, clients are prioritized based on the ABCs.
Chest pain with compound fractures indicates potential internal bleeding or
thoracic injury (breathing/circulation issues). The unresponsive client with
irregular respirations would likely be categorized as expectant (black tag) if
resources are scarce, but the client with chest pain is a high priority (red tag) for
immediate transport.
Question 4. The charge nurse in the ED is reviewing the care provided for
recently admitted clients. Which of the following reflects implementation of an
accepted standard of care?
A. Placing a client who has suspected Haemophilus influenzae on contact
precautions.
B. Placing a client who has suspected Haemophilus influenzae on droplet
precautions.
C. Placing a client who has suspected Haemophilus influenzae on airborne
precautions.
D. Placing a client who has suspected Haemophilus influenzae in a negative
pressure room.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haemophilus influenzae is transmitted via respiratory droplets.
Therefore, droplet precautions (surgical mask, standard precautions) are required,
not airborne or contact.
Question 5. The nurse is working on a crisis hotline speaking with a client who
states, "I just took an entire bottle of amitriptyline." Which of the following
,responses should the nurse INITIALLY make to the client?
A. "You should go to sleep and call me back if you feel worse."
B. "Are you trying to get attention from your family?"
C. "I'm glad you called, and I want to send an ambulance to help you."
D. "Can you tell me why you took the pills?"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant. An overdose is a life-
threatening medical emergency that can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias. The
priority is to ensure the client's physical safety by dispatching emergency medical
services immediately.
Question 6. The nurse is monitoring a client following a thoracentesis. It
would be a priority for the nurse to notify the primary health care provider if
the client develops:
A. A respiratory rate that has decreased from 18 to 14.
B. A heart rate that has increased from 95 to 110 bpm.
C. A blood pressure that has decreased from 130/80 to 120/75.
D. Mild pain at the insertion site.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sudden increase in heart rate (tachycardia) following a thoracentesis
can indicate internal bleeding, hypovolemia, or a pneumothorax. This is a
significant change that requires prompt evaluation.
Question 7. A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. The client is
not eating well but denies any nausea or vomiting. Which of the following
would be best for the nurse to suggest to the client?
A. A large steak with a baked potato.
B. A high-fiber salad with beans.
C. Chicken, green beans, and cottage cheese.
D. Spicy chili with crackers.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients undergoing chemotherapy need adequate protein and calories
for healing. Small, frequent meals that are high in protein (chicken, cottage
cheese) and easy to digest are best, especially when the client has a poor appetite.
Spicy or overly fibrous foods may cause GI upset.
, Question 8. Which medication should be given for a patient in V-tach
(ventricular tachycardia) with a pulse?
A. Atropine
B. Amiodarone
C. Adenosine
D. Digoxin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication commonly used to treat
stable ventricular tachycardia. Adenosine is used for supraventricular tachycardia
(SVT), and atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
Question 9. The nurse is talking with a patient who has Multiple Sclerosis
(MS). What would need follow-up by the nurse?
A. The patient schedules rest periods during the day.
B. The patient avoids crowded places to prevent infection.
C. The patient takes hot showers to relieve muscle spasms.
D. The patient uses a cane when walking long distances.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Heat (such as hot showers, hot tubs, or overheating) can temporarily
worsen MS symptoms (Uhthoff's phenomenon). Patients should be advised to avoid
extreme heat and use cooling measures instead.
Question 10. A patient had a colostomy created 6 hours ago. The stoma
appears dark red, dry, and flaccid with a small amount of mucous drained in
the bag. What is the first priority?
A. Document the finding as a normal post-op appearance.
B. Call the provider.
C. Apply a new ostomy bag immediately.
D. Irrigate the stoma with warm water.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A healthy stoma should be beefy red and moist. A dark red, dry, or
flaccid stoma indicates ischemia and necrosis. This is a medical emergency
requiring immediate provider notification.
SECTION 2: FUNDAMENTALS & PRIORITIZATION
