DREXEL NURS 550 FINAL EXAM
2026/2027 | 150 PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS &
RATIONALES | ADVANCED HEALTH
ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSTIC
REASONING STUDY GUIDE
1. Which of the following is an example of subjective data collected during a
health assessment?
A) Height and weight
B) A patient's recall of past health conditions
C) Results from an abdominal CT scan
D) Complete blood count
Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data includes the patient's own account of symptoms, past
health conditions, and perceptions. Objective data includes measurable findings like
vital signs and lab results .
2. The "review of systems" (ROS) is designed to:
A) Replace the need for a physical examination
B) Evaluate the patient's mental status
C) Screen for additional symptoms the patient may not have mentioned
spontaneously
D) Document the patient's family medical history
Answer: C
Rationale: The ROS systematically screens each body system for symptoms that the
patient may not have volunteered during the chief complaint or history of present
illness .
3. Which of the following is a leading question that should be avoided during
an interview?
A) "How would you describe your pain?"
B) "You don't have any chest pain, do you?"
C) "What makes your symptoms better?"
D) "When did you first notice this problem?"
Answer: B
,Rationale: Leading questions suggest a desired Answer and bias the patient's
response. Providers should use open-ended, neutral questions .
4. When a patient uses a word that is unclear, the provider should:
A) Ignore it and move on
B) Assume the meaning based on context
C) Ask for clarification using the patient's own words
D) Correct the patient's terminology
Answer: C
Rationale: Clarification using the patient's own language ensures accurate
understanding (e.g., "You mentioned feeling 'funny'—can you tell me more about
that?") .
5. Which heart sound is most indicative of volume overload?
A) S1
B) S2
C) S3
D) S4
Answer: C
Rationale: An S3 gallop is associated with volume overload and heart failure. It is a
low-pitched sound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope .
6. Which part of the stethoscope should be used to hear S3, S4, and low-
pitched tones?
A) Diaphragm
B) Bell
C) Earpieces
D) Tubing
Answer: B
Rationale: The bell is designed to detect low-frequency sounds such as S3 and S4
gallops and mitral stenosis murmurs .
7. The most accurate location to assess skin turgor in an adult is the:
A) Forehead
B) Forearm
C) Abdomen
D) Sternum
Answer: B
Rationale: The forearm or sternum is commonly used in adults because skin turgor
decreases with age and other sites may be less reliable. Study guide summaries
specifically cite the forearm .
8. The most common location for breast cancers is the:
A) Upper inner quadrant
,B) Lower outer quadrant
C) Upper outer quadrant
D) Nipple/areolar complex
Answer: C
Rationale: The upper outer quadrant contains the greatest amount of glandular
tissue and is the most frequent site of breast malignancies .
9. Leopold's maneuvers are used to:
A) Assess fetal heart tones
B) Determine the position of the fetus in a pregnant uterus
C) Measure cervical dilation
D) Evaluate placental location
Answer: B
Rationale: Leopold's maneuvers are a systematic method of palpating the gravid
abdomen to determine fetal presentation, position, and lie .
10. A pack-year history is calculated by:
A) Number of packs per day × years smoked
B) Number of cigarettes per day ÷ years smoked
C) Total cigarettes smoked in a lifetime
D) Years smoked ÷ packs per day
Answer: A
Rationale: Pack-years quantify cumulative smoking exposure and are calculated as
packs per day multiplied by the number of years smoked .
11. Which cranial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to raise their
eyebrows?
A) CN V (trigeminal)
B) CN VII (facial)
C) CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
D) CN XI (spinal accessory)
Answer: B
Rationale: The facial nerve (CN VII) innervates the muscles of facial expression,
including the frontalis muscle used in eyebrow raising .
12. Which tool is used to assess cranial nerve II?
A) Snellen eye chart
B) Tuning fork
C) Cotton wisp
D) Tongue blade
Answer: A
Rationale: The Snellen eye chart assesses visual acuity, which is a function of the optic
nerve (CN II) .
, 13. Which cranial nerves control eye movement?
A) CN I, II, III
B) CN III, IV, VI
C) CN V, VII, VIII
D) CN IX, X, XI
Answer: B
Rationale: Oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) control extraocular eye
movements .
14. Which cranial nerve controls pupil constriction AND eye movement?
A) Optic (CN II)
B) Oculomotor (CN III)
C) Trigeminal (CN V)
D) Facial (CN VII)
Answer: B
Rationale: The oculomotor nerve (CN III) carries parasympathetic fibers for pupil
constriction and innervates most extraocular muscles .
15. A patient presents with a rash of small vesicles on an erythematous base
overlying a single rib dermatome, accompanied by burning pain that worsens
with light touch. What type of pain is this?
A) Neuropathic pain
B) Idiopathic pain
C) Nociceptive or somatic pain
D) Psychogenic pain
Answer: A
Rationale: This presentation is classic for herpes zoster (shingles). The burning pain
worsened by light touch (allodynia) is neuropathic in origin .
16. Which of the following is NOT a component of the health history?
A) Physical examination of the thorax and lungs
B) Review of systems
C) Present illness
D) Personal and social items
Answer: A
Rationale: The health history consists of subjective information: chief complaint, HPI,
past medical history, family history, personal/social history, and ROS. The physical
exam is objective data .
17. The seven attributes of every symptom include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Location
B) Quality
C) Laboratory values
D) Aggravating and relieving factors
2026/2027 | 150 PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS &
RATIONALES | ADVANCED HEALTH
ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSTIC
REASONING STUDY GUIDE
1. Which of the following is an example of subjective data collected during a
health assessment?
A) Height and weight
B) A patient's recall of past health conditions
C) Results from an abdominal CT scan
D) Complete blood count
Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data includes the patient's own account of symptoms, past
health conditions, and perceptions. Objective data includes measurable findings like
vital signs and lab results .
2. The "review of systems" (ROS) is designed to:
A) Replace the need for a physical examination
B) Evaluate the patient's mental status
C) Screen for additional symptoms the patient may not have mentioned
spontaneously
D) Document the patient's family medical history
Answer: C
Rationale: The ROS systematically screens each body system for symptoms that the
patient may not have volunteered during the chief complaint or history of present
illness .
3. Which of the following is a leading question that should be avoided during
an interview?
A) "How would you describe your pain?"
B) "You don't have any chest pain, do you?"
C) "What makes your symptoms better?"
D) "When did you first notice this problem?"
Answer: B
,Rationale: Leading questions suggest a desired Answer and bias the patient's
response. Providers should use open-ended, neutral questions .
4. When a patient uses a word that is unclear, the provider should:
A) Ignore it and move on
B) Assume the meaning based on context
C) Ask for clarification using the patient's own words
D) Correct the patient's terminology
Answer: C
Rationale: Clarification using the patient's own language ensures accurate
understanding (e.g., "You mentioned feeling 'funny'—can you tell me more about
that?") .
5. Which heart sound is most indicative of volume overload?
A) S1
B) S2
C) S3
D) S4
Answer: C
Rationale: An S3 gallop is associated with volume overload and heart failure. It is a
low-pitched sound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope .
6. Which part of the stethoscope should be used to hear S3, S4, and low-
pitched tones?
A) Diaphragm
B) Bell
C) Earpieces
D) Tubing
Answer: B
Rationale: The bell is designed to detect low-frequency sounds such as S3 and S4
gallops and mitral stenosis murmurs .
7. The most accurate location to assess skin turgor in an adult is the:
A) Forehead
B) Forearm
C) Abdomen
D) Sternum
Answer: B
Rationale: The forearm or sternum is commonly used in adults because skin turgor
decreases with age and other sites may be less reliable. Study guide summaries
specifically cite the forearm .
8. The most common location for breast cancers is the:
A) Upper inner quadrant
,B) Lower outer quadrant
C) Upper outer quadrant
D) Nipple/areolar complex
Answer: C
Rationale: The upper outer quadrant contains the greatest amount of glandular
tissue and is the most frequent site of breast malignancies .
9. Leopold's maneuvers are used to:
A) Assess fetal heart tones
B) Determine the position of the fetus in a pregnant uterus
C) Measure cervical dilation
D) Evaluate placental location
Answer: B
Rationale: Leopold's maneuvers are a systematic method of palpating the gravid
abdomen to determine fetal presentation, position, and lie .
10. A pack-year history is calculated by:
A) Number of packs per day × years smoked
B) Number of cigarettes per day ÷ years smoked
C) Total cigarettes smoked in a lifetime
D) Years smoked ÷ packs per day
Answer: A
Rationale: Pack-years quantify cumulative smoking exposure and are calculated as
packs per day multiplied by the number of years smoked .
11. Which cranial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to raise their
eyebrows?
A) CN V (trigeminal)
B) CN VII (facial)
C) CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
D) CN XI (spinal accessory)
Answer: B
Rationale: The facial nerve (CN VII) innervates the muscles of facial expression,
including the frontalis muscle used in eyebrow raising .
12. Which tool is used to assess cranial nerve II?
A) Snellen eye chart
B) Tuning fork
C) Cotton wisp
D) Tongue blade
Answer: A
Rationale: The Snellen eye chart assesses visual acuity, which is a function of the optic
nerve (CN II) .
, 13. Which cranial nerves control eye movement?
A) CN I, II, III
B) CN III, IV, VI
C) CN V, VII, VIII
D) CN IX, X, XI
Answer: B
Rationale: Oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) control extraocular eye
movements .
14. Which cranial nerve controls pupil constriction AND eye movement?
A) Optic (CN II)
B) Oculomotor (CN III)
C) Trigeminal (CN V)
D) Facial (CN VII)
Answer: B
Rationale: The oculomotor nerve (CN III) carries parasympathetic fibers for pupil
constriction and innervates most extraocular muscles .
15. A patient presents with a rash of small vesicles on an erythematous base
overlying a single rib dermatome, accompanied by burning pain that worsens
with light touch. What type of pain is this?
A) Neuropathic pain
B) Idiopathic pain
C) Nociceptive or somatic pain
D) Psychogenic pain
Answer: A
Rationale: This presentation is classic for herpes zoster (shingles). The burning pain
worsened by light touch (allodynia) is neuropathic in origin .
16. Which of the following is NOT a component of the health history?
A) Physical examination of the thorax and lungs
B) Review of systems
C) Present illness
D) Personal and social items
Answer: A
Rationale: The health history consists of subjective information: chief complaint, HPI,
past medical history, family history, personal/social history, and ROS. The physical
exam is objective data .
17. The seven attributes of every symptom include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Location
B) Quality
C) Laboratory values
D) Aggravating and relieving factors
