,NSG 2610 Exam 2 Adult Health Nursing II Questions And Answers
2026/2027 South College
Q1. A 69-year-old client suddenly develops right facial drooping,
right arm weakness, and difficulty producing words. The client
understands spoken instructions but can only respond using short,
fragmented phrases. Which neurological region is most likely
affected?
A) Left frontal language-production region
B) Right occipital cortex
C) Cerebellar vermis
D) Medulla oblongata
Correct Answer: A) Left frontal language-production region
Rationale: Expressive or Broca-type aphasia is associated with injury to
language-production networks in the dominant frontal hemisphere, usually
the left. Comprehension may be relatively preserved, but speech becomes
nonfluent and effortful. Associated right-sided weakness suggests
involvement of nearby left cerebral motor pathways.
Q2. A 72-year-old client arrives with sudden left-sided weakness and
slurred speech. Symptoms began approximately 50 minutes earlier.
Blood glucose is 104 mg/dL, and the client is maintaining airway
protection. Which diagnostic study should be prioritized before
selecting reperfusion therapy?
A) Routine lumbar spine radiography
B) Noncontrast computed tomography of the head
C) Elective electroencephalography
D) Abdominal ultrasonography
Correct Answer: B) Noncontrast computed tomography of the head
Rationale: Noncontrast head computed tomography is commonly used
urgently to evaluate for intracranial hemorrhage in suspected acute stroke.
The distinction between ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke is essential before
administering intravenous thrombolytic therapy. Additional vascular imaging
may identify large-vessel occlusion and potential thrombectomy eligibility.
,Q3. A 61-year-old client has an acute ischemic stroke caused by
occlusion of the proximal middle cerebral artery. The client arrived
four hours after the last-known-well time. Computed tomography
excludes hemorrhage, and vascular imaging confirms a large-vessel
occlusion. Which intervention should be considered?
A) Routine outpatient observation without further evaluation
B) Permanent bed rest as definitive treatment
C) Emergency endovascular thrombectomy assessment based on imaging
and clinical eligibility
D) Immediate administration of oral warfarin to dissolve the obstruction
Correct Answer: C) Emergency endovascular thrombectomy assessment
based on imaging and clinical eligibility
Rationale: Endovascular thrombectomy can restore cerebral blood flow in
appropriately selected clients with acute large-vessel ischemic stroke.
Eligibility depends on neurological findings, vascular anatomy, infarct extent,
imaging, and time from symptom onset. Treatment decisions should be made
rapidly because neurological tissue injury progresses during ongoing
ischemia.
Q4. A 65-year-old client receiving intravenous thrombolytic therapy
for acute ischemic stroke suddenly develops a severe headache,
vomiting, and worsening neurological deficits. Which intervention
takes priority?
A) Increase the thrombolytic infusion rate.
B) Administer aspirin immediately.
C) Encourage the client to walk.
D) Stop the thrombolytic infusion and initiate emergency evaluation for
possible intracranial hemorrhage.
Correct Answer: D) Stop the thrombolytic infusion and initiate emergency
evaluation for possible intracranial hemorrhage.
Rationale: Sudden headache, vomiting, and neurological deterioration during
thrombolytic therapy raise concern for symptomatic intracranial hemorrhage.
Immediate cessation of the infusion, neurological assessment, emergency
, imaging, and preparation for appropriate reversal or hemostatic treatment
are required.
Q5. A 74-year-old client with acute ischemic stroke is not receiving
reperfusion therapy. Blood pressure is 192/104 mmHg, and there is
no evidence of aortic dissection, acute cardiac ischemia, or another
hypertensive emergency. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
A) Blood pressure must always be reduced immediately to 120/80 mmHg.
B) Permissive hypertension may be appropriate initially to support cerebral
perfusion, according to the prescribed stroke protocol.
C) Severe hypertension cannot affect stroke outcomes.
D) Oral antihypertensives should be administered repeatedly without
monitoring.
Correct Answer: B) Permissive hypertension may be appropriate initially to
support cerebral perfusion, according to the prescribed stroke protocol.
Rationale: Following acute ischemic stroke, cerebral autoregulation may be
impaired, and the ischemic penumbra can depend on systemic perfusion
pressure. In clients not receiving reperfusion therapy, blood pressure is often
managed conservatively unless specific thresholds or urgent indications are
present. Rapid excessive lowering may worsen cerebral ischemia.
Q6. A 57-year-old client has acute ischemic stroke and is being
evaluated for intravenous thrombolysis. Blood pressure is 198/116
mmHg. Which action is most appropriate?
A) Administer thrombolysis without evaluating blood pressure.
B) Delay all stroke treatment until the next day.
C) Initiate prescribed blood pressure management to achieve the required
pretreatment threshold before thrombolytic administration.
D) Encourage the client to exercise.
Correct Answer: C) Initiate prescribed blood pressure management to
achieve the required pretreatment threshold before thrombolytic
administration.
Rationale: Intravenous thrombolytic treatment requires careful blood
pressure control because uncontrolled hypertension increases the risk of
intracranial hemorrhage. In eligible clients, blood pressure generally must be
2026/2027 South College
Q1. A 69-year-old client suddenly develops right facial drooping,
right arm weakness, and difficulty producing words. The client
understands spoken instructions but can only respond using short,
fragmented phrases. Which neurological region is most likely
affected?
A) Left frontal language-production region
B) Right occipital cortex
C) Cerebellar vermis
D) Medulla oblongata
Correct Answer: A) Left frontal language-production region
Rationale: Expressive or Broca-type aphasia is associated with injury to
language-production networks in the dominant frontal hemisphere, usually
the left. Comprehension may be relatively preserved, but speech becomes
nonfluent and effortful. Associated right-sided weakness suggests
involvement of nearby left cerebral motor pathways.
Q2. A 72-year-old client arrives with sudden left-sided weakness and
slurred speech. Symptoms began approximately 50 minutes earlier.
Blood glucose is 104 mg/dL, and the client is maintaining airway
protection. Which diagnostic study should be prioritized before
selecting reperfusion therapy?
A) Routine lumbar spine radiography
B) Noncontrast computed tomography of the head
C) Elective electroencephalography
D) Abdominal ultrasonography
Correct Answer: B) Noncontrast computed tomography of the head
Rationale: Noncontrast head computed tomography is commonly used
urgently to evaluate for intracranial hemorrhage in suspected acute stroke.
The distinction between ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke is essential before
administering intravenous thrombolytic therapy. Additional vascular imaging
may identify large-vessel occlusion and potential thrombectomy eligibility.
,Q3. A 61-year-old client has an acute ischemic stroke caused by
occlusion of the proximal middle cerebral artery. The client arrived
four hours after the last-known-well time. Computed tomography
excludes hemorrhage, and vascular imaging confirms a large-vessel
occlusion. Which intervention should be considered?
A) Routine outpatient observation without further evaluation
B) Permanent bed rest as definitive treatment
C) Emergency endovascular thrombectomy assessment based on imaging
and clinical eligibility
D) Immediate administration of oral warfarin to dissolve the obstruction
Correct Answer: C) Emergency endovascular thrombectomy assessment
based on imaging and clinical eligibility
Rationale: Endovascular thrombectomy can restore cerebral blood flow in
appropriately selected clients with acute large-vessel ischemic stroke.
Eligibility depends on neurological findings, vascular anatomy, infarct extent,
imaging, and time from symptom onset. Treatment decisions should be made
rapidly because neurological tissue injury progresses during ongoing
ischemia.
Q4. A 65-year-old client receiving intravenous thrombolytic therapy
for acute ischemic stroke suddenly develops a severe headache,
vomiting, and worsening neurological deficits. Which intervention
takes priority?
A) Increase the thrombolytic infusion rate.
B) Administer aspirin immediately.
C) Encourage the client to walk.
D) Stop the thrombolytic infusion and initiate emergency evaluation for
possible intracranial hemorrhage.
Correct Answer: D) Stop the thrombolytic infusion and initiate emergency
evaluation for possible intracranial hemorrhage.
Rationale: Sudden headache, vomiting, and neurological deterioration during
thrombolytic therapy raise concern for symptomatic intracranial hemorrhage.
Immediate cessation of the infusion, neurological assessment, emergency
, imaging, and preparation for appropriate reversal or hemostatic treatment
are required.
Q5. A 74-year-old client with acute ischemic stroke is not receiving
reperfusion therapy. Blood pressure is 192/104 mmHg, and there is
no evidence of aortic dissection, acute cardiac ischemia, or another
hypertensive emergency. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
A) Blood pressure must always be reduced immediately to 120/80 mmHg.
B) Permissive hypertension may be appropriate initially to support cerebral
perfusion, according to the prescribed stroke protocol.
C) Severe hypertension cannot affect stroke outcomes.
D) Oral antihypertensives should be administered repeatedly without
monitoring.
Correct Answer: B) Permissive hypertension may be appropriate initially to
support cerebral perfusion, according to the prescribed stroke protocol.
Rationale: Following acute ischemic stroke, cerebral autoregulation may be
impaired, and the ischemic penumbra can depend on systemic perfusion
pressure. In clients not receiving reperfusion therapy, blood pressure is often
managed conservatively unless specific thresholds or urgent indications are
present. Rapid excessive lowering may worsen cerebral ischemia.
Q6. A 57-year-old client has acute ischemic stroke and is being
evaluated for intravenous thrombolysis. Blood pressure is 198/116
mmHg. Which action is most appropriate?
A) Administer thrombolysis without evaluating blood pressure.
B) Delay all stroke treatment until the next day.
C) Initiate prescribed blood pressure management to achieve the required
pretreatment threshold before thrombolytic administration.
D) Encourage the client to exercise.
Correct Answer: C) Initiate prescribed blood pressure management to
achieve the required pretreatment threshold before thrombolytic
administration.
Rationale: Intravenous thrombolytic treatment requires careful blood
pressure control because uncontrolled hypertension increases the risk of
intracranial hemorrhage. In eligible clients, blood pressure generally must be
