CPR - CERTIFICATION EXAM 2026/2027 |
CARDIOPULMONARY RESUSCITATION
CERTIFICATION | 50 VERIFIED Q&A | DETAILED
RATIONALES | PASS GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
Section 1: Adult CPR and AED (Q1–Q15)
1. A 58-year-old man collapses in a grocery store. A bystander confirms unresponsiveness and
shouts for help. According to the Adult Out-of-Hospital Chain of Survival, which link comes
immediately after recognition and activation of the emergency response system?
A. Rapid defibrillation
B. High-quality CPR
C. Advanced life support
D. Post-cardiac arrest care
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Adult Chain of Survival sequence is: recognition and activation → high-quality CPR →
rapid defibrillation → advanced life support → post-cardiac arrest care → recovery. High-quality CPR
begins immediately after EMS activation, before defibrillation.
2. You arrive at a workplace where a worker is motionless beside an energized electrical panel with
visible arcing. What is your FIRST action?
A. Begin chest compressions immediately
B. Tap and shout to assess responsiveness
C. Ensure the scene is safe before approaching
D. Apply AED pads
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Scene safety is the universal first step and supersedes all patient-contact actions. An
energized panel poses a lethal hazard to the rescuer; power must be disconnected or the area
secured before approach.
3. After confirming scene safety and unresponsiveness in an adult, what is the immediate next step?
A. Check for breathing and a pulse
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Activate the emergency response system (call 911)
D. Open the airway and give 2 rescue breaths
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: EMS activation should occur within the first 30 seconds to shorten time-to-defibrillation;
assessment follows activation.
4. What is the correct chest-compression rate for adult CPR?
A. 80–100 per minute
B. 100–120 per minute
, 2
C. 120–140 per minute
D. As fast as possible
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current AHA/ILCOR guidelines specify 100–120 compressions per minute to optimize
coronary perfusion while allowing full chest recoil. Rates below 100 compromise perfusion; rates
above 120 reduce recoil and filling time.
5. What is the recommended compression depth for an adult?
A. At least 1 inch (2.5 cm)
B. At least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4 inches (6 cm)
C. Approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm)
D. One-third of chest depth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) generates adequate cardiac output; depth greater than
2.4 inches increases injury risk without added benefit.
6. The compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer adult CPR is:
A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 15:1
D. 30:1
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The universal 30:2 ratio for single-rescuer CPR across adult, child, and infant minimizes
interruptions in compressions.
7. During two-rescuer adult CPR, how often should rescuers switch compressor roles?
A. Every 30 seconds
B. Every 1 minute
C. Every 2 minutes or when fatigued
D. Only when the AED prompts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Switching at 2-minute intervals maintains compression quality and reduces fatigue-
related decay in depth and rate.
8. An AED arrives during CPR. What is the FIRST action?
A. Continue compressions while charging
B. Power on the AED and follow prompts
C. Insert an advanced airway
D. Remove all clothing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Early AED application is the priority; powering on initiates voice prompts and rhythm
analysis. Compressions should continue only until the AED is ready for analysis.