NR 293 Pharmacology – Exam 3 Questions and
Answers| Updated 2026/2027| Pass Guaranteed|
Chamberlain University
1. A client is prescribed metoprolol for hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse
monitor for?
A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperglycemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers like metoprolol slow heart rate; monitor for bradycardia and hypotension.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about lisinopril. Which side effect is most characteristic?
A) Dry cough
B) Dry cough
C) Peripheral edema
D) Tachycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors cause dry cough due to bradykinin accumulation; may require switching to
ARB.
3. A client on furosemide should be monitored for which electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
,Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion; monitor and replace as needed.
4. A nurse is administering digoxin. Which finding requires holding the dose?
A) Heart rate 80 bpm
B) Heart rate 52 bpm
C) Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
D) Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is held for apical pulse <60 bpm in adults to prevent toxicity.
5. A client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5 with no bleeding. What is the priority action?
A) Administer vitamin K IV
B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider
C) Increase the warfarin dose
D) Continue warfarin as ordered
Answer: B
Rationale: INR >4 without bleeding: hold warfarin and notify provider for dose adjustment.
6. A nurse is preparing to administer IV heparin. Which laboratory value is used to monitor
therapy?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Answer: B
Rationale: aPTT monitors unfractionated heparin; goal is 1.5-2.5 times control.
2
,7. A client is prescribed amoxicillin. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) “Take with food to increase absorption.”
B) “Complete the full course even if you feel better.”
C) “Stop the medication if you develop a rash.”
D) “Take with dairy products.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Completing the full course prevents resistance and recurrence.
8. A client on gentamicin should be monitored for which serious adverse effect?
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
C) Cardiotoxicity
D) Neurotoxicity
Answer: B
Rationale: Aminoglycosides like gentamicin can cause kidney damage and hearing loss.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about phenytoin. Which instruction is correct?
A) “Take with a high-protein meal.”
B) “Practice good oral hygiene to prevent gingival hyperplasia.”
C) “Stop the medication if you feel drowsy.”
D) “Take with antacids to reduce GI upset.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin causes gingival overgrowth; good oral hygiene and dental care help.
10. A client on lithium has a level of 1.8 mEq/L. Which finding is expected?
A) Fine hand tremor
B) Coarse tremor, vomiting, and confusion
3
, C) No symptoms
D) Weight gain
Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium 1.5-2.0 mEq/L indicates moderate toxicity; needs intervention.
11. A nurse is administering haloperidol. Which acute extrapyramidal symptom is most likely?
A) Tardive dyskinesia
B) Acute dystonia
C) Akathisia
D) Parkinsonism
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute dystonia (muscle spasms) occurs early with high-potency antipsychotics; treat with
anticholinergics.
12. A client on fluoxetine reports feeling more anxious and agitated. What should the nurse do
first?
A) Discontinue the medication
B) Notify the provider; this may be activation syndrome
C) Reassure the client and continue
D) Administer a benzodiazepine
Answer: B
Rationale: Early SSRI use can cause activation (anxiety, agitation); provider may adjust dose.
13. A client on insulin glargine should be taught that this insulin is:
A) Rapid-acting
B) Long-acting, given once daily
C) Short-acting
D) Intermediate-acting
4
Answers| Updated 2026/2027| Pass Guaranteed|
Chamberlain University
1. A client is prescribed metoprolol for hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse
monitor for?
A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperglycemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers like metoprolol slow heart rate; monitor for bradycardia and hypotension.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about lisinopril. Which side effect is most characteristic?
A) Dry cough
B) Dry cough
C) Peripheral edema
D) Tachycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors cause dry cough due to bradykinin accumulation; may require switching to
ARB.
3. A client on furosemide should be monitored for which electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
,Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion; monitor and replace as needed.
4. A nurse is administering digoxin. Which finding requires holding the dose?
A) Heart rate 80 bpm
B) Heart rate 52 bpm
C) Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
D) Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is held for apical pulse <60 bpm in adults to prevent toxicity.
5. A client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5 with no bleeding. What is the priority action?
A) Administer vitamin K IV
B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider
C) Increase the warfarin dose
D) Continue warfarin as ordered
Answer: B
Rationale: INR >4 without bleeding: hold warfarin and notify provider for dose adjustment.
6. A nurse is preparing to administer IV heparin. Which laboratory value is used to monitor
therapy?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Answer: B
Rationale: aPTT monitors unfractionated heparin; goal is 1.5-2.5 times control.
2
,7. A client is prescribed amoxicillin. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) “Take with food to increase absorption.”
B) “Complete the full course even if you feel better.”
C) “Stop the medication if you develop a rash.”
D) “Take with dairy products.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Completing the full course prevents resistance and recurrence.
8. A client on gentamicin should be monitored for which serious adverse effect?
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
C) Cardiotoxicity
D) Neurotoxicity
Answer: B
Rationale: Aminoglycosides like gentamicin can cause kidney damage and hearing loss.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about phenytoin. Which instruction is correct?
A) “Take with a high-protein meal.”
B) “Practice good oral hygiene to prevent gingival hyperplasia.”
C) “Stop the medication if you feel drowsy.”
D) “Take with antacids to reduce GI upset.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin causes gingival overgrowth; good oral hygiene and dental care help.
10. A client on lithium has a level of 1.8 mEq/L. Which finding is expected?
A) Fine hand tremor
B) Coarse tremor, vomiting, and confusion
3
, C) No symptoms
D) Weight gain
Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium 1.5-2.0 mEq/L indicates moderate toxicity; needs intervention.
11. A nurse is administering haloperidol. Which acute extrapyramidal symptom is most likely?
A) Tardive dyskinesia
B) Acute dystonia
C) Akathisia
D) Parkinsonism
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute dystonia (muscle spasms) occurs early with high-potency antipsychotics; treat with
anticholinergics.
12. A client on fluoxetine reports feeling more anxious and agitated. What should the nurse do
first?
A) Discontinue the medication
B) Notify the provider; this may be activation syndrome
C) Reassure the client and continue
D) Administer a benzodiazepine
Answer: B
Rationale: Early SSRI use can cause activation (anxiety, agitation); provider may adjust dose.
13. A client on insulin glargine should be taught that this insulin is:
A) Rapid-acting
B) Long-acting, given once daily
C) Short-acting
D) Intermediate-acting
4
