Page 1 of 113
NSG 3280 EXAM 4 (PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FOR NURSES I), EXAM —
COMPREHENSIVE —EXAM QUESTIONS LATEST EDITION 2026 – 2027
VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
1. A 45-year-old male presents with a painless, fluid-filled swelling of the scrotum
that transilluminates brightly; which pathophysiological mechanism is responsible
for this finding?
A) Inflammation of the epididymis
B) Accumulation of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis
C) Twisting of the spermatic cord
D) Neoplastic proliferation of testicular cells
Answer: B
Rationale: A hydrocele is caused by an accumulation of serous fluid in the tunica
vaginalis or along the spermatic cord, producing a painless, transilluminating scrotal
swelling.
2. A patient is diagnosed with a hydrocele measuring 6 cm in diameter and reports
significant discomfort with sitting and intercourse; which management approach is
most appropriate?
A) Immediate surgical removal regardless of symptoms
, Page 2 of 113
B) Antibiotic therapy for 14 days
C) Surgical removal because the patient finds the swelling unbearable
D) Observation with annual ultrasound
Answer: C
Rationale: Surgical removal of a hydrocele is generally considered when the patient
experiences significant discomfort or finds the swelling unbearable; most hydroceles
are benign and require no intervention.
3. A 28-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe testicular pain, nausea,
and a high-riding testicle; which pathophysiological mechanism explains the
urgency of this condition?
A) The twisting of the spermatic cord compresses blood vessels, leading to ischemia
and potential testicular infarction
B) An autoimmune reaction causes immediate sterility
C) A systemic infection leads to sepsis within hours
D) Neoplastic cells rapidly invade the scrotal wall
Answer: A
Rationale: Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency because the twisting of the
spermatic cord compresses blood vessels, causing ischemia and risking infarction of
the testicle.
4. A nurse is explaining the difference between orchitis and epididymitis to a
patient; which statement accurately describes the most common cause of orchitis
in post-pubertal males?
A) Orchitis is most commonly caused by the mumps virus.
, Page 3 of 113
B) Orchitis is exclusively caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C) Orchitis is a neoplastic condition of the testicles.
D) Orchitis is caused by twisting of the spermatic cord.
Answer: A
Rationale: Orchitis is inflammation of the testicles, most commonly caused by the
mumps virus, particularly in post-pubertal males; bacterial orchitis can occur
secondary to epididymitis.
5. A 62-year-old male presents with urinary frequency, hesitancy, and a weak
stream; which pathophysiological process is the primary cause of these symptoms
in benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A) Neoplastic transformation of prostate epithelial cells
B) Hyperplasia of periurethral glands due to changes in aging hormones
C) Atrophy of glandular tissue leading to inflammation
D) Acute bacterial infection of the prostate
Answer: B
Rationale: BPH is not cancer; it is hyperplasia of the glands surrounding the urethra,
driven by aging-related hormonal changes, specifically the ratio of estrogen to
testosterone and accumulation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT).
6. A male infant is noted to have an absent testicle in the scrotal sac on newborn
examination; which term describes this condition and what is its primary
complication if untreated?
A) Hydrocele; risk of infection
B) Cryptorchidism; risk of infertility and malignancy
, Page 4 of 113
C) Varicocele; risk of thrombosis
D) Orchitis; risk of atrophy
Answer: B
Rationale: Cryptorchidism is the failure of one or both testes to descend into the
scrotum; if untreated, it increases the risk of infertility and testicular malignancy due to
the higher temperature of the abdominal cavity.
7. A 35-year-old male presents with a soft, irregular mass in the scrotum that feels
like a "bag of worms" and is more prominent when standing; which condition is
most consistent with this finding?
A) Hydrocele
B) Varicocele
C) Testicular torsion
D) Spermatocele
Answer: B
Rationale: A varicocele is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus of veins, producing a
soft, irregular scrotal mass that is often described as feeling like a "bag of worms" and is
more prominent in the standing position.
8. A patient with acute epididymitis reports gradual onset of scrotal pain and
dysuria; which organism is most commonly responsible for epididymitis in sexually
active young males?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Treponema pallidum
NSG 3280 EXAM 4 (PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FOR NURSES I), EXAM —
COMPREHENSIVE —EXAM QUESTIONS LATEST EDITION 2026 – 2027
VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
1. A 45-year-old male presents with a painless, fluid-filled swelling of the scrotum
that transilluminates brightly; which pathophysiological mechanism is responsible
for this finding?
A) Inflammation of the epididymis
B) Accumulation of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis
C) Twisting of the spermatic cord
D) Neoplastic proliferation of testicular cells
Answer: B
Rationale: A hydrocele is caused by an accumulation of serous fluid in the tunica
vaginalis or along the spermatic cord, producing a painless, transilluminating scrotal
swelling.
2. A patient is diagnosed with a hydrocele measuring 6 cm in diameter and reports
significant discomfort with sitting and intercourse; which management approach is
most appropriate?
A) Immediate surgical removal regardless of symptoms
, Page 2 of 113
B) Antibiotic therapy for 14 days
C) Surgical removal because the patient finds the swelling unbearable
D) Observation with annual ultrasound
Answer: C
Rationale: Surgical removal of a hydrocele is generally considered when the patient
experiences significant discomfort or finds the swelling unbearable; most hydroceles
are benign and require no intervention.
3. A 28-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe testicular pain, nausea,
and a high-riding testicle; which pathophysiological mechanism explains the
urgency of this condition?
A) The twisting of the spermatic cord compresses blood vessels, leading to ischemia
and potential testicular infarction
B) An autoimmune reaction causes immediate sterility
C) A systemic infection leads to sepsis within hours
D) Neoplastic cells rapidly invade the scrotal wall
Answer: A
Rationale: Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency because the twisting of the
spermatic cord compresses blood vessels, causing ischemia and risking infarction of
the testicle.
4. A nurse is explaining the difference between orchitis and epididymitis to a
patient; which statement accurately describes the most common cause of orchitis
in post-pubertal males?
A) Orchitis is most commonly caused by the mumps virus.
, Page 3 of 113
B) Orchitis is exclusively caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C) Orchitis is a neoplastic condition of the testicles.
D) Orchitis is caused by twisting of the spermatic cord.
Answer: A
Rationale: Orchitis is inflammation of the testicles, most commonly caused by the
mumps virus, particularly in post-pubertal males; bacterial orchitis can occur
secondary to epididymitis.
5. A 62-year-old male presents with urinary frequency, hesitancy, and a weak
stream; which pathophysiological process is the primary cause of these symptoms
in benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A) Neoplastic transformation of prostate epithelial cells
B) Hyperplasia of periurethral glands due to changes in aging hormones
C) Atrophy of glandular tissue leading to inflammation
D) Acute bacterial infection of the prostate
Answer: B
Rationale: BPH is not cancer; it is hyperplasia of the glands surrounding the urethra,
driven by aging-related hormonal changes, specifically the ratio of estrogen to
testosterone and accumulation of dihydrotestosterone (DHT).
6. A male infant is noted to have an absent testicle in the scrotal sac on newborn
examination; which term describes this condition and what is its primary
complication if untreated?
A) Hydrocele; risk of infection
B) Cryptorchidism; risk of infertility and malignancy
, Page 4 of 113
C) Varicocele; risk of thrombosis
D) Orchitis; risk of atrophy
Answer: B
Rationale: Cryptorchidism is the failure of one or both testes to descend into the
scrotum; if untreated, it increases the risk of infertility and testicular malignancy due to
the higher temperature of the abdominal cavity.
7. A 35-year-old male presents with a soft, irregular mass in the scrotum that feels
like a "bag of worms" and is more prominent when standing; which condition is
most consistent with this finding?
A) Hydrocele
B) Varicocele
C) Testicular torsion
D) Spermatocele
Answer: B
Rationale: A varicocele is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus of veins, producing a
soft, irregular scrotal mass that is often described as feeling like a "bag of worms" and is
more prominent in the standing position.
8. A patient with acute epididymitis reports gradual onset of scrotal pain and
dysuria; which organism is most commonly responsible for epididymitis in sexually
active young males?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Treponema pallidum
