VATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR RETAKE
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS ◆RATIONALES 2026
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
CORE DOMAINS
Management of Care
Safety and Infection Prevention and Control
Health Promotion and Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity
Basic Care and Comfort
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
Reduction of Risk Potential
Physiological Adaptation
Maternal-Newborn Nursing
Pediatric Nursing
Leadership and Professional Issues
Fundamentals and Patient Safety
INTRODUCTION
The VATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Retake Examination is designed to assess the
essential nursing knowledge, clinical judgment, and professional decision-making skills
required for safe entry-level registered nursing practice. This comprehensive
assessment evaluates foundational theory, applied professional knowledge, regulatory
and legal compliance, ethical standards, and real-world clinical scenarios. The
examination utilizes multiple-choice and scenario-based question formats to measure
critical thinking and prioritization abilities across diverse healthcare settings. Emphasis
is placed on the practical application of nursing concepts to promote safe, effective,
,and patient-centered care. This assessment serves as a crucial tool for identifying
areas of strength and opportunities for remediation, ensuring readiness for
professional licensure and competent nursing practice.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–300
1. A nurse manager is observing staff interactions on a medical-surgical unit. Which
action by a staff nurse requires immediate intervention to protect client confidentiality?
A. Discussing a client's laboratory results in the unit hallway
B. Providing handoff report to the oncoming nurse at the client's bedside
C. Accessing a client's electronic health record to verify a new medication order
D. Shredding printed documents containing client identification information
◆✔◆ A
◆RATIONALE: Discussing client information in a public area such as a hallway
violates the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and breaches
client confidentiality. Bedside report, accessing records for direct care, and shredding
documents are appropriate practices.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings via a
nasogastric tube. Which nursing action is the priority to prevent aspiration?
A. Flushing the tube with 30 mL of water every 6 hours
B. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 to 45 degrees
C. Checking gastric residual volume every 2 hours
D. Turning off the feeding pump during repositioning
◆✔◆ B
,◆RATIONALE: Maintaining the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees is
the most effective intervention to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings. Residual
checks are typically performed every 4 to 6 hours, not every 2 hours.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin sodium.
Which technique should the nurse utilize?
A. Aspirate for blood return prior to injecting the medication
B. Massage the injection site vigorously after the needle is removed
C. Insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle into the fatty tissue
D. Use a 1-inch needle to ensure deep intramuscular delivery
◆✔◆ C
◆RATIONALE: Heparin is administered into the subcutaneous tissue of the
abdomen, using a 45- to 90-degree angle with a short needle. Aspiration and massage
are contraindicated because they increase the risk of hematoma formation.
4. A registered nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task is
appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A. Administering a scheduled oral analgesic to a stable client
B. Assessing the skin integrity of a client with a new pressure injury
C. Ambulating a client who is one day postoperative and stable
D. Teaching a client how to self-administer insulin
◆✔◆ C
, ◆RATIONALE: Ambulating a stable client is within the scope of practice for
assistive personnel. Medication administration, assessment, and client teaching are
nursing responsibilities that require professional judgment and cannot be delegated.
5. A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of
heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic
effect?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. International normalized ratio (INR)
D. Platelet count
◆✔◆ B
◆RATIONALE: The aPTT is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the
therapeutic response to unfractionated heparin therapy. The PT and INR are used to
monitor warfarin therapy.
6. A nurse is triaging clients following a mass casualty event. Which client should the
nurse prioritize for immediate treatment?
A. A client with a closed femur fracture and a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
B. A client with a penetrating chest wound who is alert and breathing spontaneously
C. A client with a superficial laceration to the forearm and controlled bleeding
D. A client who is apneic and pulseless with a visible head injury
◆✔◆ B
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS ◆RATIONALES 2026
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
CORE DOMAINS
Management of Care
Safety and Infection Prevention and Control
Health Promotion and Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity
Basic Care and Comfort
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
Reduction of Risk Potential
Physiological Adaptation
Maternal-Newborn Nursing
Pediatric Nursing
Leadership and Professional Issues
Fundamentals and Patient Safety
INTRODUCTION
The VATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Retake Examination is designed to assess the
essential nursing knowledge, clinical judgment, and professional decision-making skills
required for safe entry-level registered nursing practice. This comprehensive
assessment evaluates foundational theory, applied professional knowledge, regulatory
and legal compliance, ethical standards, and real-world clinical scenarios. The
examination utilizes multiple-choice and scenario-based question formats to measure
critical thinking and prioritization abilities across diverse healthcare settings. Emphasis
is placed on the practical application of nursing concepts to promote safe, effective,
,and patient-centered care. This assessment serves as a crucial tool for identifying
areas of strength and opportunities for remediation, ensuring readiness for
professional licensure and competent nursing practice.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–300
1. A nurse manager is observing staff interactions on a medical-surgical unit. Which
action by a staff nurse requires immediate intervention to protect client confidentiality?
A. Discussing a client's laboratory results in the unit hallway
B. Providing handoff report to the oncoming nurse at the client's bedside
C. Accessing a client's electronic health record to verify a new medication order
D. Shredding printed documents containing client identification information
◆✔◆ A
◆RATIONALE: Discussing client information in a public area such as a hallway
violates the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and breaches
client confidentiality. Bedside report, accessing records for direct care, and shredding
documents are appropriate practices.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings via a
nasogastric tube. Which nursing action is the priority to prevent aspiration?
A. Flushing the tube with 30 mL of water every 6 hours
B. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 to 45 degrees
C. Checking gastric residual volume every 2 hours
D. Turning off the feeding pump during repositioning
◆✔◆ B
,◆RATIONALE: Maintaining the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees is
the most effective intervention to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings. Residual
checks are typically performed every 4 to 6 hours, not every 2 hours.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin sodium.
Which technique should the nurse utilize?
A. Aspirate for blood return prior to injecting the medication
B. Massage the injection site vigorously after the needle is removed
C. Insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle into the fatty tissue
D. Use a 1-inch needle to ensure deep intramuscular delivery
◆✔◆ C
◆RATIONALE: Heparin is administered into the subcutaneous tissue of the
abdomen, using a 45- to 90-degree angle with a short needle. Aspiration and massage
are contraindicated because they increase the risk of hematoma formation.
4. A registered nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task is
appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A. Administering a scheduled oral analgesic to a stable client
B. Assessing the skin integrity of a client with a new pressure injury
C. Ambulating a client who is one day postoperative and stable
D. Teaching a client how to self-administer insulin
◆✔◆ C
, ◆RATIONALE: Ambulating a stable client is within the scope of practice for
assistive personnel. Medication administration, assessment, and client teaching are
nursing responsibilities that require professional judgment and cannot be delegated.
5. A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of
heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic
effect?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. International normalized ratio (INR)
D. Platelet count
◆✔◆ B
◆RATIONALE: The aPTT is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the
therapeutic response to unfractionated heparin therapy. The PT and INR are used to
monitor warfarin therapy.
6. A nurse is triaging clients following a mass casualty event. Which client should the
nurse prioritize for immediate treatment?
A. A client with a closed femur fracture and a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
B. A client with a penetrating chest wound who is alert and breathing spontaneously
C. A client with a superficial laceration to the forearm and controlled bleeding
D. A client who is apneic and pulseless with a visible head injury
◆✔◆ B
