ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2026 |
Actual Board Questions & Verified
Correct Detailed Q&A
Section 1: Questions 1–50
1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is pregnant about prevention of
neural tube defects. Which nutrient should the nurse recommend?
A. Calcium
B. Folate
C. Vitamin B12
D. Magnesium
Rationale: Adequate folate intake before conception and during early pregnancy is
essential to prevent neural tube defects in the developing fetus. While calcium, B12,
and magnesium are important during pregnancy, folate has the strongest evidence for
neural tube defect prevention.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke and has manifestations of dysphagia.
Which intervention should the nurse take?
A. Tilt the client's head backward to facilitate swallowing.
B. Use liquids to clear food from the client's mouth.
C. Add a thickening agent to liquids.
D. Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
Rationale: Thickened liquids are easier for clients with dysphagia to control and reduce
the risk of aspiration. Tilting the head backward increases aspiration risk. The client
should be positioned upright (high-Fowler's), not semi-Fowler's, during meals.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to an older adult client who lives alone.
Which strategy should the nurse include to address the client's decreased sense of
taste and smell?
A. Maintain consistent food textures at mealtimes.
B. Use kosher salt in place of table salt.
C. Label and date food in the refrigerator.
D. Wait 1 hour after eating to consume fluids.
Rationale: Older adults with decreased taste and smell may find foods with consistent
textures more appealing and easier to manage. Increasing salt intake is not
recommended. Labeling food addresses food safety, not sensory changes.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a goiter about appropriate food choices. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will eat more tuna."
B. "I will eat more red meat."
, C. "I will eat bananas for a snack."
D. "I will eat blueberries every morning."
Rationale: Goiter is often caused by iodine deficiency. Tuna and other seafood are rich
sources of iodine. Red meat, bananas, and blueberries are not significant sources of
iodine.
5. A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a client who has Clostridium difficile.
Which finding indicates fluid volume deficit?
A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
B. Hct 53%
C. Sodium 145 mEq/L
D. HbA1c 5%
Rationale: An elevated hematocrit indicates hemoconcentration, which is a sign of fluid
volume deficit. C. difficile-associated diarrhea can lead to significant fluid loss. A
potassium of 3.5 is at the low end of normal but not diagnostic of deficit alone.
6. A client in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury had a urinary output of 420 mL in
the preceding 24 hours. How much fluid should the nurse plan to provide over the
next 24 hours?
A. 2,550 mL
B. 1,530 mL
C. 920 mL
D. 2,040 mL
Rationale: In oliguric AKI, fluid intake is typically restricted to the previous 24-hour
urine output plus insensible losses (approximately 500 mL). 420 mL + 500 mL = 920
mL.
7. A nurse is teaching a client ways to manage anorexia during radiation therapy. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Limit high-kilocalorie supplements to between meals."
B. "Eat hot foods rather than cold foods."
C. "Avoid overeating during good days."
D. "Consume nutrient-dense foods first."
Rationale: Clients with anorexia should prioritize nutrient-dense foods at each meal to
maximize nutritional intake when appetite is limited. Small, frequent meals and high-
calorie supplements between meals are often recommended.
8. A nurse is teaching a client who is receiving bolus feedings through a nasogastric
tube about dumping syndrome. The nurse should instruct the client to report which
manifestation?
A. Constipation
B. Bradycardia
C. Drowsiness
D. Dizziness
Rationale: Dumping syndrome occurs when hyperosmolar formula enters the small
intestine rapidly, causing fluid shifts. Manifestations include dizziness, tachycardia,
diaphoresis, and abdominal cramping. Constipation and bradycardia are not typical.
,9. A client receiving a thiazide diuretic for hypertension selects which food to reflect
understanding of teaching regarding this medication?
A. Navy beans and ham
B. Baked potato
C. Cheddar cheese
D. Beef broth
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics cause potassium loss. The client should consume
potassium-rich foods. A baked potato (with skin) is an excellent source of potassium.
Navy beans and ham are high in sodium, and cheese and broth are not significant
potassium sources.
10. A nurse is teaching nutrition to a client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney
disease. Which recommendation should the nurse include?
A. Limit calcium intake
B. Increase potassium intake
C. Limit protein intake
D. Increase phosphorus intake
Rationale: Clients with CKD require protein restriction to reduce the workload on the
kidneys and slow progression of kidney disease. Potassium and phosphorus are
typically restricted, not increased, in advanced CKD.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has stomatitis following radiation therapy. Which
intervention is appropriate?
A. Discourage the use of a straw.
B. Offer the client frozen bananas as a snack.
C. Serve the client hot meals.
D. Avoid serving sauces or gravies.
Rationale: Frozen bananas are soothing and easy to swallow for clients with stomatitis.
Hot foods can irritate oral mucosa. Using a straw may help bypass painful areas.
Sauces and gravies can ease swallowing.
12. A nurse is calculating the BMI of a client who weighs 198 lb and is 5 feet 8 inches tall.
The nurse should identify this client as which of the following?
A. Underweight
B. Normal weight
C. Overweight
D. Obese Class I
Rationale: BMI = (198 lb ÷ 68 in²) × 703 = 30.1 kg/m². A BMI of 30–34.9 is classified as
Obese Class I.
13. A nurse is educating a client about the DASH diet. Which nutrient should the client
be encouraged to significantly reduce?
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Magnesium
Rationale: The DASH diet emphasizes fruits, vegetables, low-fat dairy, and reduced
, sodium to lower blood pressure. It is rich in potassium, calcium, and magnesium, which
have synergistic blood pressure-lowering effects.
14. A nurse is teaching a client about complete proteins. Which food selection represents
a complete protein?
A. Lentils
B. Peanut butter on whole wheat bread
C. Tofu stir-fry with rice
D. Grilled chicken breast
Rationale: Complete proteins contain all nine essential amino acids and are primarily
found in animal sources and soy. Chicken is a complete protein. Lentils, peanut butter,
and rice are incomplete proteins.
15. A client asks which type of fat is most heart-healthy. The nurse should recommend
foods high in which of the following?
A. Saturated fats
B. Trans fats
C. Monounsaturated fats
D. Hydrogenated oils
Rationale: Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats (olive oil, avocados, nuts) lower
LDL cholesterol and are considered heart-healthy. Saturated and trans fats increase
cardiovascular risk.
16. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which food
should the nurse recommend the client eat in moderation?
A. Bananas
B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Whole grain bread
D. Chicken breast
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's
anticoagulant effect. Clients should maintain a consistent intake rather than
eliminating these foods entirely.
17. A nurse is providing teaching about lowering solid fat intake to an adolescent who is
overweight. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Restrict your daily meat intake to 5 ounces."
B. "Limit egg yolk consumption to 3 per week."
C. "Select cheeses that contain no more than 3 g of fat per serving."
D. All of the above are appropriate recommendations.
Rationale: All of these are appropriate strategies for reducing solid fat intake: limiting
meat portions, restricting egg yolks, and choosing low-fat cheeses.
18. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has celiac disease. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. "I can have tapioca pudding for dessert."
B. "I can eat whole wheat bread in moderation."
C. "I can have canned soups as long as they are cream-based."
D. "I can drink beer occasionally."
Actual Board Questions & Verified
Correct Detailed Q&A
Section 1: Questions 1–50
1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is pregnant about prevention of
neural tube defects. Which nutrient should the nurse recommend?
A. Calcium
B. Folate
C. Vitamin B12
D. Magnesium
Rationale: Adequate folate intake before conception and during early pregnancy is
essential to prevent neural tube defects in the developing fetus. While calcium, B12,
and magnesium are important during pregnancy, folate has the strongest evidence for
neural tube defect prevention.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke and has manifestations of dysphagia.
Which intervention should the nurse take?
A. Tilt the client's head backward to facilitate swallowing.
B. Use liquids to clear food from the client's mouth.
C. Add a thickening agent to liquids.
D. Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
Rationale: Thickened liquids are easier for clients with dysphagia to control and reduce
the risk of aspiration. Tilting the head backward increases aspiration risk. The client
should be positioned upright (high-Fowler's), not semi-Fowler's, during meals.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to an older adult client who lives alone.
Which strategy should the nurse include to address the client's decreased sense of
taste and smell?
A. Maintain consistent food textures at mealtimes.
B. Use kosher salt in place of table salt.
C. Label and date food in the refrigerator.
D. Wait 1 hour after eating to consume fluids.
Rationale: Older adults with decreased taste and smell may find foods with consistent
textures more appealing and easier to manage. Increasing salt intake is not
recommended. Labeling food addresses food safety, not sensory changes.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a goiter about appropriate food choices. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will eat more tuna."
B. "I will eat more red meat."
, C. "I will eat bananas for a snack."
D. "I will eat blueberries every morning."
Rationale: Goiter is often caused by iodine deficiency. Tuna and other seafood are rich
sources of iodine. Red meat, bananas, and blueberries are not significant sources of
iodine.
5. A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a client who has Clostridium difficile.
Which finding indicates fluid volume deficit?
A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
B. Hct 53%
C. Sodium 145 mEq/L
D. HbA1c 5%
Rationale: An elevated hematocrit indicates hemoconcentration, which is a sign of fluid
volume deficit. C. difficile-associated diarrhea can lead to significant fluid loss. A
potassium of 3.5 is at the low end of normal but not diagnostic of deficit alone.
6. A client in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury had a urinary output of 420 mL in
the preceding 24 hours. How much fluid should the nurse plan to provide over the
next 24 hours?
A. 2,550 mL
B. 1,530 mL
C. 920 mL
D. 2,040 mL
Rationale: In oliguric AKI, fluid intake is typically restricted to the previous 24-hour
urine output plus insensible losses (approximately 500 mL). 420 mL + 500 mL = 920
mL.
7. A nurse is teaching a client ways to manage anorexia during radiation therapy. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Limit high-kilocalorie supplements to between meals."
B. "Eat hot foods rather than cold foods."
C. "Avoid overeating during good days."
D. "Consume nutrient-dense foods first."
Rationale: Clients with anorexia should prioritize nutrient-dense foods at each meal to
maximize nutritional intake when appetite is limited. Small, frequent meals and high-
calorie supplements between meals are often recommended.
8. A nurse is teaching a client who is receiving bolus feedings through a nasogastric
tube about dumping syndrome. The nurse should instruct the client to report which
manifestation?
A. Constipation
B. Bradycardia
C. Drowsiness
D. Dizziness
Rationale: Dumping syndrome occurs when hyperosmolar formula enters the small
intestine rapidly, causing fluid shifts. Manifestations include dizziness, tachycardia,
diaphoresis, and abdominal cramping. Constipation and bradycardia are not typical.
,9. A client receiving a thiazide diuretic for hypertension selects which food to reflect
understanding of teaching regarding this medication?
A. Navy beans and ham
B. Baked potato
C. Cheddar cheese
D. Beef broth
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics cause potassium loss. The client should consume
potassium-rich foods. A baked potato (with skin) is an excellent source of potassium.
Navy beans and ham are high in sodium, and cheese and broth are not significant
potassium sources.
10. A nurse is teaching nutrition to a client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney
disease. Which recommendation should the nurse include?
A. Limit calcium intake
B. Increase potassium intake
C. Limit protein intake
D. Increase phosphorus intake
Rationale: Clients with CKD require protein restriction to reduce the workload on the
kidneys and slow progression of kidney disease. Potassium and phosphorus are
typically restricted, not increased, in advanced CKD.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has stomatitis following radiation therapy. Which
intervention is appropriate?
A. Discourage the use of a straw.
B. Offer the client frozen bananas as a snack.
C. Serve the client hot meals.
D. Avoid serving sauces or gravies.
Rationale: Frozen bananas are soothing and easy to swallow for clients with stomatitis.
Hot foods can irritate oral mucosa. Using a straw may help bypass painful areas.
Sauces and gravies can ease swallowing.
12. A nurse is calculating the BMI of a client who weighs 198 lb and is 5 feet 8 inches tall.
The nurse should identify this client as which of the following?
A. Underweight
B. Normal weight
C. Overweight
D. Obese Class I
Rationale: BMI = (198 lb ÷ 68 in²) × 703 = 30.1 kg/m². A BMI of 30–34.9 is classified as
Obese Class I.
13. A nurse is educating a client about the DASH diet. Which nutrient should the client
be encouraged to significantly reduce?
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Magnesium
Rationale: The DASH diet emphasizes fruits, vegetables, low-fat dairy, and reduced
, sodium to lower blood pressure. It is rich in potassium, calcium, and magnesium, which
have synergistic blood pressure-lowering effects.
14. A nurse is teaching a client about complete proteins. Which food selection represents
a complete protein?
A. Lentils
B. Peanut butter on whole wheat bread
C. Tofu stir-fry with rice
D. Grilled chicken breast
Rationale: Complete proteins contain all nine essential amino acids and are primarily
found in animal sources and soy. Chicken is a complete protein. Lentils, peanut butter,
and rice are incomplete proteins.
15. A client asks which type of fat is most heart-healthy. The nurse should recommend
foods high in which of the following?
A. Saturated fats
B. Trans fats
C. Monounsaturated fats
D. Hydrogenated oils
Rationale: Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats (olive oil, avocados, nuts) lower
LDL cholesterol and are considered heart-healthy. Saturated and trans fats increase
cardiovascular risk.
16. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which food
should the nurse recommend the client eat in moderation?
A. Bananas
B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Whole grain bread
D. Chicken breast
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's
anticoagulant effect. Clients should maintain a consistent intake rather than
eliminating these foods entirely.
17. A nurse is providing teaching about lowering solid fat intake to an adolescent who is
overweight. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Restrict your daily meat intake to 5 ounces."
B. "Limit egg yolk consumption to 3 per week."
C. "Select cheeses that contain no more than 3 g of fat per serving."
D. All of the above are appropriate recommendations.
Rationale: All of these are appropriate strategies for reducing solid fat intake: limiting
meat portions, restricting egg yolks, and choosing low-fat cheeses.
18. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has celiac disease. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. "I can have tapioca pudding for dessert."
B. "I can eat whole wheat bread in moderation."
C. "I can have canned soups as long as they are cream-based."
D. "I can drink beer occasionally."
