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2026 ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam Review | Actual-Style, Retake and CMS Preparation | 180 NGN Screenshot Questions with Approved Answers and Rationales

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2026 ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam Review | Actual-Style, Retake and CMS Preparation | 180 NGN Screenshot Questions with Approved Answers and Rationales

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2026 ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit
Exam Review | Actual-Style, Retake and CMS
Preparation | 180 NGN Screenshot Questions
with Approved Answers and Rationales
Section 1: Management of Care
1. A charge nurse is making client assignments for a team consisting of an RN,
an LPN/LVN, and a UAP. Which client is most appropriate to assign to the
LPN/LVN?
A. A client who is 4 hours post-thoracentesis with a new onset of shortness of
breath
B. A client who requires discharge teaching for a new colostomy
C. A client who is stable and requires a dressing change and oral medication
administration
D. A client who is experiencing acute chest pain and needs an immediate ECG

C. A client who is stable and requires a dressing change and oral medication
administration.
LPN/LVN scope of practice includes providing care to stable clients with
predictable outcomes, including routine dressing changes and administration of
oral medications. Options A and D require complex assessment and immediate
intervention by an RN. Option B involves initial teaching, which is the
responsibility of the RN.
2. A nurse is receiving a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which client
should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with COPD who has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
B. A client who is 2 days postoperative and reports incisional pain at 6/10
C. A client with diabetes who is requesting a snack
D. A client awaiting discharge instructions for warfarin

A. A client with COPD who has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air.
Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework, oxygenation is a

,priority. An SpO2 of 88% indicates hypoxemia and requires immediate assessment
and intervention. Pain, hunger, and discharge teaching are lower priorities in
comparison .
3. A competent adult client refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs.
Which actions should the nurse take? (Select All That Apply.)
A. Verify the client understands the risks of refusal.
B. Document the client's refusal in the medical record.
C. Ask the client's family to convince the client to accept the transfusion.
D. Notify the provider of the client's decision.
E. Administer the transfusion if the hemoglobin is critically low.

A, B, D.
A competent adult has the legal and ethical right to autonomy and to refuse any
treatment. The nurse must ensure the refusal is informed (A), document the refusal
and notification (B), and inform the provider (D). Administering treatment against
the client's wishes (E) constitutes battery. Asking the family to override the
decision (C) violates the client's autonomy .
4. A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
Which task is appropriate to delegate?
A. Assessing a client's breath sounds after a respiratory treatment
B. Administering a scheduled oral pain medication
C. Measuring and recording a stable client's intake and output
D. Teaching a client how to perform self-administration of insulin

C. Measuring and recording a stable client's intake and output.
Measuring intake and output on a stable client is a routine, standardized task
within the UAP's scope of practice. Assessment (A), medication administration
(B), and client teaching (D) require the clinical judgment and licensure of an RN .
5. A nurse manager is reviewing the concept of client advocacy. Which action
best demonstrates advocacy?
A. Making a decision for a client who is indecisive.
B. Ensuring the client has all the information needed to make an informed
decision.

,C. Persuading the client to follow the provider's preferred treatment plan.
D. Sharing the client's medical information with family members without consent.

B. Ensuring the client has all the information needed to make an informed
decision.
Advocacy involves protecting the client's rights and ensuring they have the
necessary information to make informed choices about their care. Making
decisions for the client (A) and persuading them (C) undermine autonomy. Sharing
information without consent (D) violates confidentiality.
6. A nurse is preparing to administer medications. Which action is the most
important for preventing medication errors?
A. Checking the medication once at the medication cart.
B. Using two client identifiers before administration.
C. Asking the client to state their name only.
D. Preparing the medication in the hallway.

B. Using two client identifiers before administration.
The standard of care to prevent medication errors is to verify the client's
identity using two identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) immediately before
administration. Medications should be checked three times, not once (A). Asking
for the name only (C) is insufficient. Medications should be prepared in a
designated, distraction-free area, not the hallway (D) .
7. A nurse is caring for a client who speaks a different language. Which action
should the nurse take to ensure effective communication?
A. Use a family member as an interpreter.
B. Use a professional medical interpreter.
C. Speak loudly and slowly in English.
D. Use gestures and pictures only.

B. Use a professional medical interpreter.
Using a professional medical interpreter ensures accurate communication and
maintains confidentiality. Using family members (A) can lead to errors and
breaches of privacy. Speaking loudly (C) does not overcome a language barrier.
Gestures (D) are insufficient for complex medical discussions .

, 8. A charge nurse is assigning clients to the most experienced RN. Which client
should be assigned to the most experienced RN?
A. A client with diabetes requiring routine insulin.
B. A client with pneumonia requiring IV antibiotics.
C. A client with unstable angina experiencing chest pain.
D. A client with a hip fracture scheduled for surgery in the morning.

C. A client with unstable angina experiencing chest pain.
The client with unstable angina and active chest pain is physiologically
unstable and requires the complex assessment and intervention skills of the most
experienced nurse. The other clients are relatively stable .
9. A nurse is reviewing the concept of informed consent. Which element is
essential for the consent to be valid?
A. The client must be of legal age or an emancipated minor.
B. The nurse must witness the client signing the form.
C. The consent must be obtained by the nurse.
D. The client must agree with the provider's recommendation.

A. The client must be of legal age or an emancipated minor.
For informed consent to be valid, the client must have the legal capacity to
consent (legal age, competent, or emancipated). The nurse can witness the
signature (B) but it is the provider's responsibility to obtain informed consent (C).
The client has the right to disagree (D) and still give consent.
10. A nurse is receiving a handoff report using the SBAR technique. Which
information belongs in the "A" (Assessment) component?
A. "The client is a 72-year-old male admitted with pneumonia."
B. "The client's temperature is 101.2°F and heart rate is 98."
C. "The client appears anxious and has crackles in the left base."
D. "I recommend obtaining a chest x-ray and starting antibiotics."

C. "The client appears anxious and has crackles in the left base."
The "A" in SBAR stands for Assessment, which is the nurse's clinical
interpretation of the data. Option A is Situation (S), Option B is Background (B),
and Option D is Recommendation (R).

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