PSYC 140 Module 2 Exam Prenatal Development Through Early Childhood Actual
Exam 2026/2027 – Complete 30 Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified
| Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Section A: Prenatal Development & Birth (Q1–Q6)
Q1: The prenatal stage that begins with fertilization and ends with implantation of the
zygote in the uterine wall, lasting approximately the first two weeks after conception, is
called the:
A. Embryonic stage
B. Fetal stage
C. Germinal stage [CORRECT]
D. Neonatal stage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The germinal stage spans roughly the first two weeks, marked by rapid cell
division, differentiation, and implantation. The embryonic stage follows from about
week 3 to week 8, the fetal stage runs from week 9 to birth, and the neonatal period
occurs after birth.
Q2: A pregnant woman contracts rubella during the fifth week of gestation and is
counseled that the risk of major structural malformations is high. A friend contracts
rubella during the seventh month and is told the risk of structural defects is much lower.
Which principle best explains this difference in counseling?
A. Teratogens only affect the mother's health, not the developing organism
B. The embryonic period (weeks 3–8) is the critical period of organ formation, so it
carries the greatest vulnerability to structural teratogenic damage, while the fetal period
involves mainly growth and refinement [CORRECT]
C. The placenta becomes weaker in later pregnancy, filtering out all harmful agents
D. Rubella is only dangerous if the mother shows symptoms during labor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Each organ system has a critical period of formation during the embryonic
stage, when teratogenic exposure produces the most severe structural damage. The
fetal period is less vulnerable to gross malformation, teratogens do affect the
developing organism directly, and the placenta neither weakens nor filters everything, so
the other options are incorrect.
, Q3: A newborn presents with a small head circumference, smooth philtrum, thin upper
lip, small eye openings, a heart defect, and significant developmental delay. The mother
reports drinking heavily throughout her pregnancy. The substance responsible for this
pattern of birth defects is:
A. Caffeine
B. Tylenol (acetaminophen)
C. Prenatal vitamins
D. Alcohol [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alcohol is a powerful teratogen causing fetal alcohol spectrum disorder,
characterized by facial abnormalities, growth restriction, and central nervous system
impairment. Caffeine is associated with modest risks such as low birth weight in high
amounts, acetaminophen is not linked to this syndrome, and prenatal vitamins are
protective.
Q4: A 38-year-old woman is at 11 weeks' gestation and, due to her age, desires the
earliest possible testing for chromosomal abnormalities. Which prenatal assessment
procedure is most appropriate at this point in the pregnancy?
A. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) [CORRECT]
B. Amniocentesis
C. Nonstress test
D. Apgar assessment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CVS is performed between approximately 10 and 13 weeks, providing the
earliest chromosomal analysis. Amniocentesis is typically done at 15–20 weeks, the
nonstress test monitors fetal well-being in late pregnancy, and the Apgar is a newborn
assessment administered after delivery.
Q5: A woman arrives at the hospital, is examined, and is found to be fully dilated at 10
cm. The nurse instructs her that it is now time to begin pushing. The client is in which
stage of labor?
A. First stage
B. Second stage [CORRECT]
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The second stage of labor begins with full dilation (10 cm) and ends with
delivery of the baby, during which the mother pushes. The first stage involves dilation
Exam 2026/2027 – Complete 30 Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified
| Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Section A: Prenatal Development & Birth (Q1–Q6)
Q1: The prenatal stage that begins with fertilization and ends with implantation of the
zygote in the uterine wall, lasting approximately the first two weeks after conception, is
called the:
A. Embryonic stage
B. Fetal stage
C. Germinal stage [CORRECT]
D. Neonatal stage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The germinal stage spans roughly the first two weeks, marked by rapid cell
division, differentiation, and implantation. The embryonic stage follows from about
week 3 to week 8, the fetal stage runs from week 9 to birth, and the neonatal period
occurs after birth.
Q2: A pregnant woman contracts rubella during the fifth week of gestation and is
counseled that the risk of major structural malformations is high. A friend contracts
rubella during the seventh month and is told the risk of structural defects is much lower.
Which principle best explains this difference in counseling?
A. Teratogens only affect the mother's health, not the developing organism
B. The embryonic period (weeks 3–8) is the critical period of organ formation, so it
carries the greatest vulnerability to structural teratogenic damage, while the fetal period
involves mainly growth and refinement [CORRECT]
C. The placenta becomes weaker in later pregnancy, filtering out all harmful agents
D. Rubella is only dangerous if the mother shows symptoms during labor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Each organ system has a critical period of formation during the embryonic
stage, when teratogenic exposure produces the most severe structural damage. The
fetal period is less vulnerable to gross malformation, teratogens do affect the
developing organism directly, and the placenta neither weakens nor filters everything, so
the other options are incorrect.
, Q3: A newborn presents with a small head circumference, smooth philtrum, thin upper
lip, small eye openings, a heart defect, and significant developmental delay. The mother
reports drinking heavily throughout her pregnancy. The substance responsible for this
pattern of birth defects is:
A. Caffeine
B. Tylenol (acetaminophen)
C. Prenatal vitamins
D. Alcohol [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alcohol is a powerful teratogen causing fetal alcohol spectrum disorder,
characterized by facial abnormalities, growth restriction, and central nervous system
impairment. Caffeine is associated with modest risks such as low birth weight in high
amounts, acetaminophen is not linked to this syndrome, and prenatal vitamins are
protective.
Q4: A 38-year-old woman is at 11 weeks' gestation and, due to her age, desires the
earliest possible testing for chromosomal abnormalities. Which prenatal assessment
procedure is most appropriate at this point in the pregnancy?
A. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) [CORRECT]
B. Amniocentesis
C. Nonstress test
D. Apgar assessment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CVS is performed between approximately 10 and 13 weeks, providing the
earliest chromosomal analysis. Amniocentesis is typically done at 15–20 weeks, the
nonstress test monitors fetal well-being in late pregnancy, and the Apgar is a newborn
assessment administered after delivery.
Q5: A woman arrives at the hospital, is examined, and is found to be fully dilated at 10
cm. The nurse instructs her that it is now time to begin pushing. The client is in which
stage of labor?
A. First stage
B. Second stage [CORRECT]
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The second stage of labor begins with full dilation (10 cm) and ends with
delivery of the baby, during which the mother pushes. The first stage involves dilation
