PSYC 140 Module 5 Exam Middle & Late Adulthood
Developmental Psychology Actual Exam 2026/2027 –
Complete 30 Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
SECTION A: Middle Adulthood – Physical Development & Health
(Q1–Q6)
Q1: A 52-year-old woman visits her physician after not having a menstrual period for 14
consecutive months. How should her condition be classified?
A. Perimenopause, because her cycles have ceased
B. Menopause, defined as 12 consecutive months without menstruation [CORRECT]
C. Menarche, because menstruation has ended
D. Postpartum amenorrhea, because her hormones shifted after childbirth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Menopause is officially confirmed after 12 consecutive months without a
menstrual period, so this patient qualifies. Perimenopause refers to the transitional
years before menopause when cycles are irregular but still occurring, and menarche is
the onset of menstruation.
Q2: A 50-year-old woman reports hot flashes, night sweats, and mood fluctuations.
Which hormonal change is the primary cause of these symptoms?
A. Increased estrogen production by the ovaries
B. Increased progesterone from the adrenal glands
C. Decline in estrogen as the ovaries stop functioning [CORRECT]
D. Elevated FSH acting directly on the hypothalamus to trigger hot flashes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vasomotor and mood symptoms of menopause result primarily from the
age-related decline in estrogen as ovarian follicles are depleted. FSH rises as a
compensatory response to low estrogen but is not the direct cause of hot flashes, and
estrogen and progesterone do not increase.
Q3: A 56-year-old man reports gradual fatigue, reduced muscle mass, and decreased
libido. Lab work shows a slowly declining testosterone level. Which statement best
describes his condition?
, A. He is experiencing andropause — a gradual decline in testosterone that is less abrupt
and less universal than female menopause [CORRECT]
B. He is experiencing male menopause, which permanently ends sperm production
C. He has developed testicular cancer requiring biopsy
D. His condition is identical to female menopause in timing and universality
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Andropause involves a slow, variable decline in testosterone beginning in
middle age, unlike the relatively abrupt and universal cessation of ovarian function in
women. Most men retain some sperm production, and the process is neither sudden
nor universal.
Q4: A 47-year-old accountant complains that she must hold her phone and restaurant
menus at arm's length to read them. Which age-related change explains her difficulty?
A. Glaucoma caused by increased intraocular pressure
B. Presbycusis affecting the auditory nerve
C. Cataracts clouding the lens
D. Presbyopia — the lens stiffens with age and loses its ability to focus on near objects
[CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Presbyopia results from age-related stiffening of the lens, reducing
accommodation for near vision and prompting the need for reading glasses in midlife.
Glaucoma involves pressure, cataracts involve lens clouding, and presbycusis is hearing
loss — none affect accommodation.
Q5: A public health nurse is preparing a health lecture for adults aged 45–64. Which
causes of death should she emphasize as the leading killers during middle adulthood?
A. Accidents and homicide
B. Cancer and heart disease [CORRECT]
C. Birth complications and congenital defects
D. Alzheimer's disease and influenza
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic diseases — particularly cancer and cardiovascular disease —
overtake accidents as the leading causes of death beginning in middle adulthood.
Accidents dominate in young adulthood, while Alzheimer's disease and influenza
become more prominent in late adulthood.
Q6: A 52-year-old man notices weight gain around his abdomen despite no change in
diet, along with a gradual loss of strength. Which explanation and recommended
response are most accurate?
A. Increased growth hormone; no intervention is needed
Developmental Psychology Actual Exam 2026/2027 –
Complete 30 Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
SECTION A: Middle Adulthood – Physical Development & Health
(Q1–Q6)
Q1: A 52-year-old woman visits her physician after not having a menstrual period for 14
consecutive months. How should her condition be classified?
A. Perimenopause, because her cycles have ceased
B. Menopause, defined as 12 consecutive months without menstruation [CORRECT]
C. Menarche, because menstruation has ended
D. Postpartum amenorrhea, because her hormones shifted after childbirth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Menopause is officially confirmed after 12 consecutive months without a
menstrual period, so this patient qualifies. Perimenopause refers to the transitional
years before menopause when cycles are irregular but still occurring, and menarche is
the onset of menstruation.
Q2: A 50-year-old woman reports hot flashes, night sweats, and mood fluctuations.
Which hormonal change is the primary cause of these symptoms?
A. Increased estrogen production by the ovaries
B. Increased progesterone from the adrenal glands
C. Decline in estrogen as the ovaries stop functioning [CORRECT]
D. Elevated FSH acting directly on the hypothalamus to trigger hot flashes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vasomotor and mood symptoms of menopause result primarily from the
age-related decline in estrogen as ovarian follicles are depleted. FSH rises as a
compensatory response to low estrogen but is not the direct cause of hot flashes, and
estrogen and progesterone do not increase.
Q3: A 56-year-old man reports gradual fatigue, reduced muscle mass, and decreased
libido. Lab work shows a slowly declining testosterone level. Which statement best
describes his condition?
, A. He is experiencing andropause — a gradual decline in testosterone that is less abrupt
and less universal than female menopause [CORRECT]
B. He is experiencing male menopause, which permanently ends sperm production
C. He has developed testicular cancer requiring biopsy
D. His condition is identical to female menopause in timing and universality
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Andropause involves a slow, variable decline in testosterone beginning in
middle age, unlike the relatively abrupt and universal cessation of ovarian function in
women. Most men retain some sperm production, and the process is neither sudden
nor universal.
Q4: A 47-year-old accountant complains that she must hold her phone and restaurant
menus at arm's length to read them. Which age-related change explains her difficulty?
A. Glaucoma caused by increased intraocular pressure
B. Presbycusis affecting the auditory nerve
C. Cataracts clouding the lens
D. Presbyopia — the lens stiffens with age and loses its ability to focus on near objects
[CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Presbyopia results from age-related stiffening of the lens, reducing
accommodation for near vision and prompting the need for reading glasses in midlife.
Glaucoma involves pressure, cataracts involve lens clouding, and presbycusis is hearing
loss — none affect accommodation.
Q5: A public health nurse is preparing a health lecture for adults aged 45–64. Which
causes of death should she emphasize as the leading killers during middle adulthood?
A. Accidents and homicide
B. Cancer and heart disease [CORRECT]
C. Birth complications and congenital defects
D. Alzheimer's disease and influenza
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic diseases — particularly cancer and cardiovascular disease —
overtake accidents as the leading causes of death beginning in middle adulthood.
Accidents dominate in young adulthood, while Alzheimer's disease and influenza
become more prominent in late adulthood.
Q6: A 52-year-old man notices weight gain around his abdomen despite no change in
diet, along with a gradual loss of strength. Which explanation and recommended
response are most accurate?
A. Increased growth hormone; no intervention is needed
