ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit
Exam 2026 Package | 3 Exam Questions
Versions with NGN Answers and
Rationales
ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 PACKAGE
3 Exam Questions Versions with NGN Answers and Rationales
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
• This comprehensive study guide contains 200 practice questions designed to
simulate the ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam with detailed rationales for
each answer to strengthen understanding of critical nursing concepts.
• Use this material by completing sections daily, reviewing incorrect answers
thoroughly, and focusing on rationales to build confidence and prepare for
successful exam performance.
QUESTION 1
A 45-year-old client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the unit. The
nurse is reviewing the client's medication list. Which medication should the
nurse identify as a sulfonylurea?
A) Metformin
B) Glipizide
C) Acarbose
D) Thiazolidinedione
E) Insulin glargine
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Glipizide
,Rationale: Glipizide is a second-generation sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin
secretion from beta cells of the pancreas. Metformin is a biguanide, acarbose is an
alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, thiazolidinedione is a separate class, and insulin
glargine is a long-acting insulin preparation.
QUESTION 2
A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. The client develops
severe nausea and vomiting. Which antiemetic medication would be most
effective for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)?
A) Metoclopramide
B) Ondansetron
C) Diphenhydramine
D) Scopolamine
E) Promethazine
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Ondansetron
Rationale: Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist that is highly effective for
chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors in the
chemoreceptor trigger zone. Metoclopramide works on dopamine receptors,
diphenhydramine is an antihistamine, scopolamine is an anticholinergic, and
promethazine is a phenothiazine derivative—none are as effective as ondansetron
for CINV.
QUESTION 3
A nurse is assessing a newborn 2 hours after delivery. Which finding would
indicate the newborn has physiologic jaundice?
A) Jaundice appearing within the first 24 hours of life
B) Jaundice appearing after 24 hours of life with bilirubin levels below the
phototherapy threshold
,C) Visible scleral icterus with hemolysis present
D) Jaundice accompanied by hepatosplenomegaly
E) Jaundice in the first week with direct hyperbilirubinemia
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Jaundice appearing after 24 hours of life with bilirubin
levels below the phototherapy threshold
Rationale: Physiologic jaundice typically appears after 24 hours of life (peak at 3-5
days), affects 50-60% of term newborns, and results from immature hepatic
conjugation and increased hemolysis. Jaundice before 24 hours, with elevated
bilirubin requiring treatment, with hepatosplenomegaly, or with direct
hyperbilirubinemia indicates pathologic jaundice.
QUESTION 4
A 6-year-old child is admitted with acute leukemia. The parent asks the nurse
what the first sign of leukemia typically is. How should the nurse respond?
A) Severe bone pain and joint swelling
B) Pale skin, fatigue, and easy bruising
C) Fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing
D) Abdominal pain and hepatomegaly
E) Headache and vision changes
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Pale skin, fatigue, and easy bruising
Rationale: The initial presentation of acute leukemia in children includes
manifestations of bone marrow failure: anemia (pallor, fatigue), thrombocytopenia
(easy bruising, petechiae), and leukopenia (infections). While bone pain, fever, and
abdominal symptoms may occur, the classic triad of anemia, thrombocytopenia,
and leukopenia is most common initially.
QUESTION 5
, A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A) Encourage the client to participate in all unit activities to promote socialization
B) Provide structured activities and a calm environment with minimal stimulation
C) Allow the client unlimited access to caffeinated beverages and sugary snacks
D) Encourage the client to stay up late to manage excessive energy
E) Ignore the client's inappropriate comments to prevent reinforcement
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Provide structured activities and a calm environment
with minimal stimulation
Rationale: During a manic episode, the client experiences increased psychomotor
activity, racing thoughts, and impulsivity. A structured environment with minimal
stimulation helps prevent escalation and provides boundaries. Excessive activity,
caffeine, sugar, and lack of sleep increase agitation. The nurse should respond to
inappropriate comments therapeutively rather than ignore them.
QUESTION 6
A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which adverse effect should
the nurse teach the client to report immediately?
A) Dry cough
B) Headache
C) Swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat
D) Dizziness upon position changes
E) Nausea
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat
Rationale: Angioedema (swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat) is a serious
adverse effect of ACE inhibitors that requires immediate medical attention as it can
compromise the airway. A dry cough is a common expected side effect. Headache,
Exam 2026 Package | 3 Exam Questions
Versions with NGN Answers and
Rationales
ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 PACKAGE
3 Exam Questions Versions with NGN Answers and Rationales
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
• This comprehensive study guide contains 200 practice questions designed to
simulate the ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam with detailed rationales for
each answer to strengthen understanding of critical nursing concepts.
• Use this material by completing sections daily, reviewing incorrect answers
thoroughly, and focusing on rationales to build confidence and prepare for
successful exam performance.
QUESTION 1
A 45-year-old client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the unit. The
nurse is reviewing the client's medication list. Which medication should the
nurse identify as a sulfonylurea?
A) Metformin
B) Glipizide
C) Acarbose
D) Thiazolidinedione
E) Insulin glargine
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Glipizide
,Rationale: Glipizide is a second-generation sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin
secretion from beta cells of the pancreas. Metformin is a biguanide, acarbose is an
alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, thiazolidinedione is a separate class, and insulin
glargine is a long-acting insulin preparation.
QUESTION 2
A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. The client develops
severe nausea and vomiting. Which antiemetic medication would be most
effective for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)?
A) Metoclopramide
B) Ondansetron
C) Diphenhydramine
D) Scopolamine
E) Promethazine
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Ondansetron
Rationale: Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist that is highly effective for
chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors in the
chemoreceptor trigger zone. Metoclopramide works on dopamine receptors,
diphenhydramine is an antihistamine, scopolamine is an anticholinergic, and
promethazine is a phenothiazine derivative—none are as effective as ondansetron
for CINV.
QUESTION 3
A nurse is assessing a newborn 2 hours after delivery. Which finding would
indicate the newborn has physiologic jaundice?
A) Jaundice appearing within the first 24 hours of life
B) Jaundice appearing after 24 hours of life with bilirubin levels below the
phototherapy threshold
,C) Visible scleral icterus with hemolysis present
D) Jaundice accompanied by hepatosplenomegaly
E) Jaundice in the first week with direct hyperbilirubinemia
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Jaundice appearing after 24 hours of life with bilirubin
levels below the phototherapy threshold
Rationale: Physiologic jaundice typically appears after 24 hours of life (peak at 3-5
days), affects 50-60% of term newborns, and results from immature hepatic
conjugation and increased hemolysis. Jaundice before 24 hours, with elevated
bilirubin requiring treatment, with hepatosplenomegaly, or with direct
hyperbilirubinemia indicates pathologic jaundice.
QUESTION 4
A 6-year-old child is admitted with acute leukemia. The parent asks the nurse
what the first sign of leukemia typically is. How should the nurse respond?
A) Severe bone pain and joint swelling
B) Pale skin, fatigue, and easy bruising
C) Fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing
D) Abdominal pain and hepatomegaly
E) Headache and vision changes
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Pale skin, fatigue, and easy bruising
Rationale: The initial presentation of acute leukemia in children includes
manifestations of bone marrow failure: anemia (pallor, fatigue), thrombocytopenia
(easy bruising, petechiae), and leukopenia (infections). While bone pain, fever, and
abdominal symptoms may occur, the classic triad of anemia, thrombocytopenia,
and leukopenia is most common initially.
QUESTION 5
, A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A) Encourage the client to participate in all unit activities to promote socialization
B) Provide structured activities and a calm environment with minimal stimulation
C) Allow the client unlimited access to caffeinated beverages and sugary snacks
D) Encourage the client to stay up late to manage excessive energy
E) Ignore the client's inappropriate comments to prevent reinforcement
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Provide structured activities and a calm environment
with minimal stimulation
Rationale: During a manic episode, the client experiences increased psychomotor
activity, racing thoughts, and impulsivity. A structured environment with minimal
stimulation helps prevent escalation and provides boundaries. Excessive activity,
caffeine, sugar, and lack of sleep increase agitation. The nurse should respond to
inappropriate comments therapeutively rather than ignore them.
QUESTION 6
A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which adverse effect should
the nurse teach the client to report immediately?
A) Dry cough
B) Headache
C) Swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat
D) Dizziness upon position changes
E) Nausea
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat
Rationale: Angioedema (swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat) is a serious
adverse effect of ACE inhibitors that requires immediate medical attention as it can
compromise the airway. A dry cough is a common expected side effect. Headache,
