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Exam (elaborations)

NR 507 Final Exam Actual Exam V3 | NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology (NR507 Final Exam) [PDF] | Chamberlain University

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NR 507 Final Exam Actual Exam V3 | NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology (NR507 Final Exam) [PDF] | Chamberlain University

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NR 507 Final Exam Actual Exam V3 | NR 507 Advanced
Pathophysiology (NR507 Final Exam) [PDF] | Chamberlain University
1. A 55-year-old male patient with a long history of uncontrolled hypertension presents with
significant thickening of the left ventricular wall. Which cellular process best explains this
finding?
A. Metaplasia due to chronic stress

B. Hyperplasia of myocardial cells

C. Atrophy from reduced oxygen delivery

D. Hypertrophy of myocardial cells
Answer: D
Rationale: Left ventricular hypertrophy is a common adaptation to the increased afterload
caused by chronic hypertension. In this process, individual cardiac muscle cells increase in
size rather than number because myocytes have limited mitotic capability. This expansion
involves the synthesis of more contractile proteins to handle the increased workload,
though it can eventually lead to heart failure.

2. During an inflammatory response, which mediator is primarily responsible for inducing the
expression of adhesion molecules on vascular endothelial cells to facilitate leukocyte rolling?
A. Leukotriene B4

B. Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-α)

C. Complement C5a

D. Prostaglandin E2
Answer: B
Rationale: TNF-α and IL-1 are the primary cytokines that stimulate endothelial cells to
express E-selectin and P-selectin. These adhesion molecules are crucial for the initial
tethering and rolling of leukocytes along the vessel wall during the recruitment phase of
acute inflammation. Without this signaling, the migration of neutrophils to the site of injury
would be significantly impaired.

3. A patient is diagnosed with a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of an extra
chromosome 21. Which mechanism most frequently causes this condition during
gametogenesis?
A. Chromosomal translocation

B. Nondisjunction during meiosis

,C. Inversion of the long arm

D. Deletion of the centromere
Answer: B
Rationale: Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids
to separate properly during meiosis I or II. This error results in gametes with an abnormal
number of chromosomes, leading to aneuploidy such as Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
Advanced maternal age is a known risk factor for increased rates of nondisjunction during
the maturation of oocytes.

4. A 24-year-old female presents with a butterfly rash, joint pain, and protein in her urine.
Diagnostic testing confirms Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE). What is the primary
underlying mechanism of tissue damage in this condition?
A. Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity

B. Type II cytotoxic antibody-mediated reaction

C. Type III immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity

D. Type IV cell-mediated delayed hypersensitivity
Answer: C
Rationale: SLE is a prototypic Type III hypersensitivity disorder involving the formation of
antigen-antibody complexes that circulate in the blood. These complexes deposit in various
tissues, such as the glomeruli and joints, where they activate the complement system and
trigger intense inflammation. The resulting inflammatory response leads to the widespread
tissue destruction and multi-organ dysfunction seen in SLE patients.

5. A patient with end-stage renal disease exhibits low serum calcium and high serum
phosphate levels. Which compensatory mechanism is most likely to be elevated in this
patient?
A. Calcitonin secretion

B. Aldosterone production

C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion

D. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release

Answer: C
Rationale: Secondary hyperparathyroidism occurs in chronic kidney disease due to the
kidneys’ inability to excrete phosphate and produce active Vitamin D. The resulting
hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia stimulate the parathyroid glands to secrete
excessive PTH in an attempt to normalize calcium levels. Over time, this causes significant
bone resorption, leading to renal osteodystrophy.

, 6. Which process describes the transition of a normal cell to a malignant cell through the
accumulation of genetic mutations and epigenetic changes?
A. Senescence

B. Transformation

C. Differentiation

D. Apoptosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Transformation is the biological process by which a normal cell acquires the
hallmarks of cancer, such as independent growth and immortality. This typically involves
the activation of proto-oncogenes and the inactivation of tumor suppressor genes like p53.
Once transformed, these cells evade normal regulatory mechanisms and begin to
proliferate uncontrollably into a tumor mass.

7. A 68-year-old male with a history of smoking presents with a persistent cough and
hemoptysis. A biopsy of the bronchus shows a change from ciliated columnar epithelium to
stratified squamous epithelium. This is an example of:
A. Dysplasia

B. Anaplasia

C. Hyperplasia

D. Metaplasia

Answer: D
Rationale: Metaplasia is a reversible change where one adult cell type is replaced by
another cell type that is better able to withstand a specific stressor. In smokers, the fragile
ciliated columnar epithelium of the airway is replaced by tougher stratified squamous
epithelium to resist irritation from smoke. While this provides protection, the loss of cilia
and mucus production impairs the respiratory tract’s natural defense mechanisms.

8. In the context of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS), what is the direct
effect of Angiotensin II on the systemic vasculature?
A. Vasodilation to increase renal blood flow

B. Inhibition of sympathetic nervous system activity

C. Potent vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure

D. Decreased peripheral vascular resistance

Answer: C

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