NUR2180 Physical Assessment Quiz Module 5
Questions and Verified Answers - 100% Correct - Grade A
Rasmussen University - Latest Update 2026/2027
Total Questions 75
Cognitive Levels 30% Recall / 50% Application / 20% Analysis
Question Style 70% Scenario-based / 30% Direct Recall
Sections 6
Format Multiple Choice (4 options, single best answer)
Content Domains General Survey, Vital Signs, Pain, Nutrition, Skin/Hair/Nails, Health History, Documentation
Curriculum 2026/2027 Rasmussen University NUR2180
Exam Instructions: This comprehensive 75-question quiz assesses physical assessment knowledge across Module 5
content domains: general survey and vital signs, pain assessment, nutritional assessment, skin/hair/nails assessment, health
history and interviewing, and documentation. Select the single best answer for each question. Rationales include
assessment technique principles, normal vs. abnormal findings, clinical significance, and documentation standards.
Content reflects current (2026-2027) Rasmussen University NUR2180 curriculum standards.
Section 1: General Survey and Vital Signs
Appearance, Behavior, Measurement, and Documentation (Q1-Q14)
Q1: A nurse enters a patient's room and observes the patient's general appearance, body structure, mobility, and
behavior within the first few minutes of the encounter. This initial, overall observation is best described as the:
A. Head-to-toe assessment
B. General survey [CORRECT]
C. Focused physical assessment
D. Review of systems
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The general survey is the nurse's initial, overall observation of the patient's appearance, body structure, mobility,
and behavior, typically made within the first few minutes of the encounter and continuing throughout. It provides a baseline
that guides the rest of the assessment. The general survey includes physical appearance (age, sex, race, level of
consciousness, skin color, facial features), body structure (stature, nutrition, symmetry, posture), mobility (gait, range of
motion, involuntary movements), and behavior (dress, hygiene, affect, speech). Head-to-toe (A) is comprehensive; focused
assessment (C) targets a specific issue; ROS (D) is symptom inquiry.
NUR2180 Quiz Module 5 - Physical Assessment - Rasmussen University Page 1
, Q2: When assessing level of consciousness, the nurse notes the patient is drowsy, opens eyes to voice, is confused
but converses, and stops responding during the conversation. What is the most appropriate description using the
AVPU scale?
A. A (Alert)
B. V (Responds to Verbal stimuli) [CORRECT]
C. P (Responds to Pain)
D. U (Unresponsive)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The AVPU scale classifies level of consciousness: A (Alert - awake, responsive, oriented); V (responds to Verbal
stimuli - opens eyes and responds to voice but may be confused or drowsy); P (responds to Pain - only responds to painful
stimulus); U (Unresponsive - no response to any stimulus). A patient who is drowsy, opens eyes to voice, and responds
verbally but inconsistently is 'V' on the AVPU scale. More detailed assessment uses the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), which
scores eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. A (alert) requires sustained orientation and responsiveness.
Q3: A nurse is preparing to measure a patient's oral temperature. Which patient condition would be a
CONTRAINDICATION to the oral route?
A. Stable angina pectoris
B. The patient received pain medication 30 minutes ago [CORRECT]
C. The patient is 6 hours post-op from an inguinal hernia repair
D. The patient is 8 years old and cooperative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral temperature measurement is contraindicated in patients who: (1) cannot cooperate (confused, unconscious,
pediatric < 5 years); (2) have oral surgery or trauma; (3) are mouth breathers or have oxygen therapy via mask (low
reading); (4) just consumed hot/cold fluids or smoked within past 15-30 minutes (false reading); (5) just received pain
medication (may affect reliability if patient becomes sedated). Hot/cold food and fluids alter oral readings by 0.5-1.0
degrees for 10-15 minutes. Stable angina (A), post-op hernia repair (C), and cooperative 8-year-old (D) do not
contraindicate oral temperature measurement. Tympanic or axillary routes are alternatives.
Q4: A nurse takes an axillary temperature and obtains a reading of 97.2 degrees F. The nurse understands that the
axillary temperature is typically:
A. About 1 degree F higher than oral
B. About 1 degree F lower than oral [CORRECT]
C. Equal to the oral temperature
D. About 2 degrees F higher than core temperature
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Axillary temperature is approximately 1 degree F (0.5 degree C) LOWER than oral temperature, reflecting
surface rather than core temperature. Oral temperature (97.8-99.1 degrees F) is close to core. Tympanic (97.8-99.1)
approximates core temperature. Rectal temperature is 0.5-1 degree F HIGHER than oral. Temporal artery approximates core
temperature. When documenting axillary temperature, the nurse should specify the route (e.g., '97.2 degrees F axillary'). For
accuracy, the thermometer should remain in the closed axilla for the manufacturer's recommended time (typically 4-5
minutes for mercury, less for digital). Axillary is less accurate but useful when oral/rectal routes are contraindicated.
NUR2180 Quiz Module 5 - Physical Assessment - Rasmussen University Page 2
, Q5: When assessing a patient's pulse, the nurse notes an irregular rhythm. What is the most appropriate next action?
A. Document the irregular rate without further assessment
B. Listen to the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds and compare with the radial pulse [CORRECT]
C. Take the pulse at a different site
D. Skip the pulse assessment and measure blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When an irregular radial pulse is detected, the nurse must: (1) auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds
(since irregular rhythms require a full minute for accuracy); (2) compare the apical pulse rate with the radial pulse rate to
identify any pulse deficit (apical rate higher than radial rate indicates cardiac contractions not producing enough volume to
feel at radial). A pulse deficit indicates cardiac dysfunction (e.g., atrial fibrillation). Documenting without further
assessment (A) misses the pulse deficit. Different site (C) and skipping (D) are inappropriate. The apical-radial pulse
comparison is essential for irregular rhythms.
Q6: A nurse assesses the patient's pulse and notes a rate of 58 beats per minute. The patient is an adult marathon
runner with no symptoms. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Abnormal bradycardia requiring immediate intervention
B. Normal sinus bradycardia, expected in well-trained athletes [CORRECT]
C. Tachycardia requiring fluid resuscitation
D. Dysrhythmia requiring a 12-lead ECG
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal adult resting pulse is 60-100 beats per minute. Bradycardia (< 60) is typically concerning but is a normal,
expected finding in well-trained athletes due to high stroke volume from cardiac conditioning. This 'athletic bradycardia' is
asymptomatic and does not require intervention. Symptomatic bradycardia (dizziness, syncope, chest pain, hypotension)
requires evaluation. Tachycardia (> 100) is not present. A 12-lead ECG would be appropriate for symptomatic bradycardia
but not for asymptomatic athletic bradycardia. The nurse should document and continue routine assessment.
Q7: The nurse is assessing an adult patient's respiratory rate. To ensure accuracy, the nurse should:
A. Count respirations for 15 seconds and multiply by 4
B. Count respirations for a full 60 seconds, ideally without the patient's awareness [CORRECT]
C. Ask the patient to breathe normally while you count openly
D. Use a stethoscope to count chest movements
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory rate is best measured by counting for a full 60 seconds (1 full minute), because respirations are
typically irregular and influenced by conscious control. The nurse should count without the patient's awareness (e.g., while
pretending to take the radial pulse), because conscious breathing alters the rate. If the patient is aware, they may breathe
differently. Counting for 15 seconds (A) is insufficient for irregular patterns. Asking the patient to breathe normally (C)
alters the rate. A stethoscope (D) is not needed - observation of chest movement suffices. Full-minute counts are especially
important for abnormal patterns, tachypnea, or bradypnea.
NUR2180 Quiz Module 5 - Physical Assessment - Rasmussen University Page 3
Questions and Verified Answers - 100% Correct - Grade A
Rasmussen University - Latest Update 2026/2027
Total Questions 75
Cognitive Levels 30% Recall / 50% Application / 20% Analysis
Question Style 70% Scenario-based / 30% Direct Recall
Sections 6
Format Multiple Choice (4 options, single best answer)
Content Domains General Survey, Vital Signs, Pain, Nutrition, Skin/Hair/Nails, Health History, Documentation
Curriculum 2026/2027 Rasmussen University NUR2180
Exam Instructions: This comprehensive 75-question quiz assesses physical assessment knowledge across Module 5
content domains: general survey and vital signs, pain assessment, nutritional assessment, skin/hair/nails assessment, health
history and interviewing, and documentation. Select the single best answer for each question. Rationales include
assessment technique principles, normal vs. abnormal findings, clinical significance, and documentation standards.
Content reflects current (2026-2027) Rasmussen University NUR2180 curriculum standards.
Section 1: General Survey and Vital Signs
Appearance, Behavior, Measurement, and Documentation (Q1-Q14)
Q1: A nurse enters a patient's room and observes the patient's general appearance, body structure, mobility, and
behavior within the first few minutes of the encounter. This initial, overall observation is best described as the:
A. Head-to-toe assessment
B. General survey [CORRECT]
C. Focused physical assessment
D. Review of systems
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The general survey is the nurse's initial, overall observation of the patient's appearance, body structure, mobility,
and behavior, typically made within the first few minutes of the encounter and continuing throughout. It provides a baseline
that guides the rest of the assessment. The general survey includes physical appearance (age, sex, race, level of
consciousness, skin color, facial features), body structure (stature, nutrition, symmetry, posture), mobility (gait, range of
motion, involuntary movements), and behavior (dress, hygiene, affect, speech). Head-to-toe (A) is comprehensive; focused
assessment (C) targets a specific issue; ROS (D) is symptom inquiry.
NUR2180 Quiz Module 5 - Physical Assessment - Rasmussen University Page 1
, Q2: When assessing level of consciousness, the nurse notes the patient is drowsy, opens eyes to voice, is confused
but converses, and stops responding during the conversation. What is the most appropriate description using the
AVPU scale?
A. A (Alert)
B. V (Responds to Verbal stimuli) [CORRECT]
C. P (Responds to Pain)
D. U (Unresponsive)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The AVPU scale classifies level of consciousness: A (Alert - awake, responsive, oriented); V (responds to Verbal
stimuli - opens eyes and responds to voice but may be confused or drowsy); P (responds to Pain - only responds to painful
stimulus); U (Unresponsive - no response to any stimulus). A patient who is drowsy, opens eyes to voice, and responds
verbally but inconsistently is 'V' on the AVPU scale. More detailed assessment uses the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), which
scores eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. A (alert) requires sustained orientation and responsiveness.
Q3: A nurse is preparing to measure a patient's oral temperature. Which patient condition would be a
CONTRAINDICATION to the oral route?
A. Stable angina pectoris
B. The patient received pain medication 30 minutes ago [CORRECT]
C. The patient is 6 hours post-op from an inguinal hernia repair
D. The patient is 8 years old and cooperative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral temperature measurement is contraindicated in patients who: (1) cannot cooperate (confused, unconscious,
pediatric < 5 years); (2) have oral surgery or trauma; (3) are mouth breathers or have oxygen therapy via mask (low
reading); (4) just consumed hot/cold fluids or smoked within past 15-30 minutes (false reading); (5) just received pain
medication (may affect reliability if patient becomes sedated). Hot/cold food and fluids alter oral readings by 0.5-1.0
degrees for 10-15 minutes. Stable angina (A), post-op hernia repair (C), and cooperative 8-year-old (D) do not
contraindicate oral temperature measurement. Tympanic or axillary routes are alternatives.
Q4: A nurse takes an axillary temperature and obtains a reading of 97.2 degrees F. The nurse understands that the
axillary temperature is typically:
A. About 1 degree F higher than oral
B. About 1 degree F lower than oral [CORRECT]
C. Equal to the oral temperature
D. About 2 degrees F higher than core temperature
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Axillary temperature is approximately 1 degree F (0.5 degree C) LOWER than oral temperature, reflecting
surface rather than core temperature. Oral temperature (97.8-99.1 degrees F) is close to core. Tympanic (97.8-99.1)
approximates core temperature. Rectal temperature is 0.5-1 degree F HIGHER than oral. Temporal artery approximates core
temperature. When documenting axillary temperature, the nurse should specify the route (e.g., '97.2 degrees F axillary'). For
accuracy, the thermometer should remain in the closed axilla for the manufacturer's recommended time (typically 4-5
minutes for mercury, less for digital). Axillary is less accurate but useful when oral/rectal routes are contraindicated.
NUR2180 Quiz Module 5 - Physical Assessment - Rasmussen University Page 2
, Q5: When assessing a patient's pulse, the nurse notes an irregular rhythm. What is the most appropriate next action?
A. Document the irregular rate without further assessment
B. Listen to the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds and compare with the radial pulse [CORRECT]
C. Take the pulse at a different site
D. Skip the pulse assessment and measure blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When an irregular radial pulse is detected, the nurse must: (1) auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds
(since irregular rhythms require a full minute for accuracy); (2) compare the apical pulse rate with the radial pulse rate to
identify any pulse deficit (apical rate higher than radial rate indicates cardiac contractions not producing enough volume to
feel at radial). A pulse deficit indicates cardiac dysfunction (e.g., atrial fibrillation). Documenting without further
assessment (A) misses the pulse deficit. Different site (C) and skipping (D) are inappropriate. The apical-radial pulse
comparison is essential for irregular rhythms.
Q6: A nurse assesses the patient's pulse and notes a rate of 58 beats per minute. The patient is an adult marathon
runner with no symptoms. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Abnormal bradycardia requiring immediate intervention
B. Normal sinus bradycardia, expected in well-trained athletes [CORRECT]
C. Tachycardia requiring fluid resuscitation
D. Dysrhythmia requiring a 12-lead ECG
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal adult resting pulse is 60-100 beats per minute. Bradycardia (< 60) is typically concerning but is a normal,
expected finding in well-trained athletes due to high stroke volume from cardiac conditioning. This 'athletic bradycardia' is
asymptomatic and does not require intervention. Symptomatic bradycardia (dizziness, syncope, chest pain, hypotension)
requires evaluation. Tachycardia (> 100) is not present. A 12-lead ECG would be appropriate for symptomatic bradycardia
but not for asymptomatic athletic bradycardia. The nurse should document and continue routine assessment.
Q7: The nurse is assessing an adult patient's respiratory rate. To ensure accuracy, the nurse should:
A. Count respirations for 15 seconds and multiply by 4
B. Count respirations for a full 60 seconds, ideally without the patient's awareness [CORRECT]
C. Ask the patient to breathe normally while you count openly
D. Use a stethoscope to count chest movements
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory rate is best measured by counting for a full 60 seconds (1 full minute), because respirations are
typically irregular and influenced by conscious control. The nurse should count without the patient's awareness (e.g., while
pretending to take the radial pulse), because conscious breathing alters the rate. If the patient is aware, they may breathe
differently. Counting for 15 seconds (A) is insufficient for irregular patterns. Asking the patient to breathe normally (C)
alters the rate. A stethoscope (D) is not needed - observation of chest movement suffices. Full-minute counts are especially
important for abnormal patterns, tachypnea, or bradypnea.
NUR2180 Quiz Module 5 - Physical Assessment - Rasmussen University Page 3
