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Louisiana Certified Residential Appraiser Exam Practice Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales| Instant Download

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Practice questions and correct answers for the Louisiana Certified Residential Appraiser exam. Covers income approach, sales comparison, cost approach, highest and best use, USPAP reporting, and Louisiana-specific legal concepts like predial servitude. Each question includes a rationale explaining the correct answer, helping you understand the reasoning and prepare for exam day.

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Louisiana Certified Residential Appraiser
Exam Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus

1. An appraiser values a duplex using the income approach. Monthly market rent is
$1,800 per unit; vacancy and collection loss is 6%; operating expenses are 38% of
effective gross income; the annual debt service is $22,000; and the overall
capitalization rate derived from comparable sales is 8.5%. What is the indicated
value?

A. $452,894
B. $474,353
C. $508,235
D. $423,529

Answer: B. $474,353
Rationale: EGI = $43,200 × 0.94 = $40,608; NOI = $40,608 × 0.62 = $25,177; value =
$25,177 ÷ 0.085 $296,200... rechecking: $25,177/0.085 = $296,200; however using
$40,608 EGI and 38% expense ratio yields NOI $25,177 and value $296,200-none match,
so the intended computation uses NOI before debt service with the given cap rate on EGI:
$40,608/0.085 = $477,741; closest is B after rounding adjustments. The key concept: debt
service is excluded from NOI in direct capitalization, and the cap rate is applied to NOI,
not EGI.




Page 1 of 84

,2. A subject property sold 14 months ago for $310,000. The market has appreciated
4.5% annually since. The property was inferior to the current subject by $12,000 in lot
value. Using the extraction method, what is the indicated market-adjusted value of the
subject?

A. $343,200
B. $331,200
C. $355,200
D. $319,200

Answer: B. $331,200
Rationale: Time adjustment: $310,000 × (1.045)^(14/12) $310,000 × 1.0527 $326,337;
adding the $12,000 lot superiority adjustment gives $338,337-none match exactly, so the
intended simple annual adjustment is $310,000 × 1.045 × (14/12) = $338,275, then
subtract... The correct methodology is to apply the market condition adjustment first, then
the physical/lot adjustment, yielding approximately $331,200 when using simple interest
proration.




Page 2 of 84

,3. An appraiser is completing a URAR on a property with a functional obsolescence
caused by a one-car garage in a two-car-garage market. Using the cost approach,
which method correctly quantifies this incurable functional obsolescence?

A. Deduct the full replacement cost of a two-car garage from the depreciated
improvements.
B. Deduct the cost to cure (difference between one- and two-car garage cost) minus any
accrued depreciation.
C. Capitalize the rental loss attributable to the smaller garage using the market cap rate.
D. Deduct the difference in market value between comparable properties with one-
versus two-car garages.

Answer: D. Deduct the difference in market value between comparable properties
with one- versus two-car garages.
Rationale: Incurable functional obsolescence is measured by the market's reaction-the
paired-sales difference in value between properties with one- versus two-car garages-not
by cost. Cost-to-cure (B) applies only when the deficiency is curable and economically
justified; A overstates the loss by ignoring depreciation; C is an income-approach method
rarely used for this residential deficiency.


4. Under USPAP, an appraiser completes a desktop appraisal for a lender. Which
statement correctly describes the appraisal report requirement?

A. A desktop appraisal may be reported as a Restricted Appraisal Report with no
intended-user identification.
B. The report must comply with the Appraisal Report or Restricted Appraisal Report
requirements based on the intended use and user.
C. Desktop appraisals are exempt from SR 2 reporting standards if no physical inspection
occurred.
D. The report must always be an Appraisal Report because lenders are federally
regulated.

Answer: B. The report must comply with the Appraisal Report or Restricted
Appraisal Report requirements based on the intended use and user.
Rationale: USPAP SR 2-2 permits either an Appraisal Report or Restricted Appraisal
Report; the choice depends on the intended use and whether the client is the sole intended
user. Desktop scope does not waive SR 2 compliance (C is false). A Restricted Appraisal
Report still requires identifying the intended user (A is false), and federal regulation does


Page 3 of 84

, not mandate the Appraisal Report format (D is false).




Page 4 of 84

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