Hawaii Barber Licensing Examination
with Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified
1. A client requests a chemical relaxer, but a strand test reveals the hair has been
previously treated with a thio-based relaxer and then colored with a permanent
oxidative dye. Which sequence of chemical events best explains why a sodium
hydroxide relaxer would now be contraindicated?
A. Thio relaxers deposit a protective coating that blocks hydroxide penetration, making
the relaxer ineffective.
B. The oxidative dye raises the hair's isoelectric point, causing hydroxide to precipitate
on the cuticle and preventing straightening.
C. Thio relaxers reduce disulfide bonds, and oxidative dye further oxidizes them;
subsequent hydroxide can cause excessive bond cleavage and hair disintegration.
D. Sodium hydroxide reacts with dye intermediates to form a colored complex that
permanently stains the hair.
Answer: C. Thio relaxers reduce disulfide bonds, and oxidative dye further oxidizes
them; subsequent hydroxide can cause excessive bond cleavage and hair
disintegration.
Rationale: Thio relaxers reduce disulfide bonds while oxidative dyes create new bonds and
alter the cortex; applying hydroxide afterward can over-cleavage remaining disulfide
bonds, causing severe damage or breakage. Options A, B, and D misstate the chemistry of
relaxers and dyes.
Page 1 of 83
,2. Under Hawaii barbering rules, which statement most accurately describes the
requirement for displaying a barber shop license and individual barber licenses?
A. Only the shop license must be posted; individual licenses may be kept in a wallet.
B. Licenses must be posted in a conspicuous place at the licensed premises and be
available for inspection.
C. Licenses are required only if the barber performs chemical services.
D. Licenses must be filed with the county tax office and need not be displayed.
Answer: B. Licenses must be posted in a conspicuous place at the licensed premises
and be available for inspection.
Rationale: Hawaii administrative rules require that both shop and individual licenses be
posted conspicuously at the licensed premises and available for inspection. Options A, C,
and D contradict the posting and inspection requirements.
Page 2 of 83
,3. During a straight-razor shave, the barber notices a small nick on the client's neck
that begins to bleed. Which immediate action best reflects current
bloodborne-pathogen standards?
A. Apply a styptic pencil, continue the shave, and disinfect the razor afterward.
B. Stop the service, don gloves, clean the wound, and dispose of contaminated materials
in a biohazard container.
C. Rinse the nick with warm water, apply a bandage, and resume the shave with the same
razor.
D. Wipe the razor with a towel, apply alcohol to the nick, and continue the service.
Answer: B. Stop the service, don gloves, clean the wound, and dispose of contaminated
materials in a biohazard container.
Rationale: Bloodborne-pathogen standards require stopping the service, using gloves,
cleaning the wound, and disposing of contaminated items properly. Options A, C, and D
risk cross-contamination and fail to follow standard precautions.
4. Which statement correctly distinguishes the growth phase of hair from the resting
phase in the context of hair cutting and chemical services?
A. Anagen is the resting phase; telogen is the growth phase, so chemical services are
safest during telogen.
B. Anagen is the active growth phase, and hair in this phase is more susceptible to
chemical damage; telogen is the resting phase.
C. Both anagen and telogen are growth phases, differing only in pigment production.
D. Catagen is the active growth phase, while anagen is the shedding phase.
Answer: B. Anagen is the active growth phase, and hair in this phase is more
susceptible to chemical damage; telogen is the resting phase.
Rationale: Anagen is the active growth phase and hair is more vulnerable to chemical
damage; telogen is the resting phase. Options A, C, and D misidentify the phases and their
implications.
Page 3 of 83
, 5. A barber is formulating a hair color using a developer. If the desired result is to
deposit color without lifting natural pigment, which developer volume should be
selected and why?
A. 40-volume developer, because it provides maximum lift and deposit.
B. 30-volume developer, because it balances lift and deposit equally.
C. 10-volume developer, because it deposits color with minimal lift and is used for
darkening or toning.
D. 20-volume developer, because it always deposits without lifting.
Answer: C. 10-volume developer, because it deposits color with minimal lift and is
used for darkening or toning.
Rationale: 10-volume developer deposits color with little to no lift, making it appropriate
for darkening or toning. Higher volumes (20, 30, 40) increase lift and are not suitable for
deposit-only results.
6. In a barbershop, a client with a known allergy to paraphenylenediamine (PPD)
requests a permanent hair color. Which alternative is most appropriate and why?
A. Use a permanent color with a lower concentration of PPD, because lower
concentration eliminates allergic reaction.
B. Use a demi-permanent color that does not contain PPD, because it avoids the allergen
while still providing color.
C. Use a temporary color rinse, because it contains PPD but is less likely to cause a
reaction.
D. Proceed with the requested permanent color after performing a patch test 24 hours
prior.
Answer: B. Use a demi-permanent color that does not contain PPD, because it avoids
the allergen while still providing color.
Rationale: Demi-permanent colors typically do not contain PPD and are safer for clients
with PPD allergy. Options A and C still contain PPD or risk reaction; option D is unsafe
because a patch test may not prevent a severe reaction in a known allergic client.
Page 4 of 83
with Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified
1. A client requests a chemical relaxer, but a strand test reveals the hair has been
previously treated with a thio-based relaxer and then colored with a permanent
oxidative dye. Which sequence of chemical events best explains why a sodium
hydroxide relaxer would now be contraindicated?
A. Thio relaxers deposit a protective coating that blocks hydroxide penetration, making
the relaxer ineffective.
B. The oxidative dye raises the hair's isoelectric point, causing hydroxide to precipitate
on the cuticle and preventing straightening.
C. Thio relaxers reduce disulfide bonds, and oxidative dye further oxidizes them;
subsequent hydroxide can cause excessive bond cleavage and hair disintegration.
D. Sodium hydroxide reacts with dye intermediates to form a colored complex that
permanently stains the hair.
Answer: C. Thio relaxers reduce disulfide bonds, and oxidative dye further oxidizes
them; subsequent hydroxide can cause excessive bond cleavage and hair
disintegration.
Rationale: Thio relaxers reduce disulfide bonds while oxidative dyes create new bonds and
alter the cortex; applying hydroxide afterward can over-cleavage remaining disulfide
bonds, causing severe damage or breakage. Options A, B, and D misstate the chemistry of
relaxers and dyes.
Page 1 of 83
,2. Under Hawaii barbering rules, which statement most accurately describes the
requirement for displaying a barber shop license and individual barber licenses?
A. Only the shop license must be posted; individual licenses may be kept in a wallet.
B. Licenses must be posted in a conspicuous place at the licensed premises and be
available for inspection.
C. Licenses are required only if the barber performs chemical services.
D. Licenses must be filed with the county tax office and need not be displayed.
Answer: B. Licenses must be posted in a conspicuous place at the licensed premises
and be available for inspection.
Rationale: Hawaii administrative rules require that both shop and individual licenses be
posted conspicuously at the licensed premises and available for inspection. Options A, C,
and D contradict the posting and inspection requirements.
Page 2 of 83
,3. During a straight-razor shave, the barber notices a small nick on the client's neck
that begins to bleed. Which immediate action best reflects current
bloodborne-pathogen standards?
A. Apply a styptic pencil, continue the shave, and disinfect the razor afterward.
B. Stop the service, don gloves, clean the wound, and dispose of contaminated materials
in a biohazard container.
C. Rinse the nick with warm water, apply a bandage, and resume the shave with the same
razor.
D. Wipe the razor with a towel, apply alcohol to the nick, and continue the service.
Answer: B. Stop the service, don gloves, clean the wound, and dispose of contaminated
materials in a biohazard container.
Rationale: Bloodborne-pathogen standards require stopping the service, using gloves,
cleaning the wound, and disposing of contaminated items properly. Options A, C, and D
risk cross-contamination and fail to follow standard precautions.
4. Which statement correctly distinguishes the growth phase of hair from the resting
phase in the context of hair cutting and chemical services?
A. Anagen is the resting phase; telogen is the growth phase, so chemical services are
safest during telogen.
B. Anagen is the active growth phase, and hair in this phase is more susceptible to
chemical damage; telogen is the resting phase.
C. Both anagen and telogen are growth phases, differing only in pigment production.
D. Catagen is the active growth phase, while anagen is the shedding phase.
Answer: B. Anagen is the active growth phase, and hair in this phase is more
susceptible to chemical damage; telogen is the resting phase.
Rationale: Anagen is the active growth phase and hair is more vulnerable to chemical
damage; telogen is the resting phase. Options A, C, and D misidentify the phases and their
implications.
Page 3 of 83
, 5. A barber is formulating a hair color using a developer. If the desired result is to
deposit color without lifting natural pigment, which developer volume should be
selected and why?
A. 40-volume developer, because it provides maximum lift and deposit.
B. 30-volume developer, because it balances lift and deposit equally.
C. 10-volume developer, because it deposits color with minimal lift and is used for
darkening or toning.
D. 20-volume developer, because it always deposits without lifting.
Answer: C. 10-volume developer, because it deposits color with minimal lift and is
used for darkening or toning.
Rationale: 10-volume developer deposits color with little to no lift, making it appropriate
for darkening or toning. Higher volumes (20, 30, 40) increase lift and are not suitable for
deposit-only results.
6. In a barbershop, a client with a known allergy to paraphenylenediamine (PPD)
requests a permanent hair color. Which alternative is most appropriate and why?
A. Use a permanent color with a lower concentration of PPD, because lower
concentration eliminates allergic reaction.
B. Use a demi-permanent color that does not contain PPD, because it avoids the allergen
while still providing color.
C. Use a temporary color rinse, because it contains PPD but is less likely to cause a
reaction.
D. Proceed with the requested permanent color after performing a patch test 24 hours
prior.
Answer: B. Use a demi-permanent color that does not contain PPD, because it avoids
the allergen while still providing color.
Rationale: Demi-permanent colors typically do not contain PPD and are safer for clients
with PPD allergy. Options A and C still contain PPD or risk reaction; option D is unsafe
because a patch test may not prevent a severe reaction in a known allergic client.
Page 4 of 83
