Examination for Professional Practice in
Psychology (EPPP) with Practice
Questions And Co
1. A researcher finds that a new 12-item depression scale correlates r = .82 with the
BDI-II but shows a coefficient alpha of .58. Which psychometric conclusion is most
defensible?
A. The scale demonstrates adequate convergent validity but insufficient internal
consistency for individual clinical decision-making.
B. The high correlation with the BDI-II compensates for low alpha, supporting clinical
use.
C. The scale has acceptable internal consistency because alpha exceeds .50.
D. The scale's low alpha indicates poor test-retest reliability.
Answer: A. The scale demonstrates adequate convergent validity but insufficient
internal consistency for individual clinical decision-making.
Rationale: High correlation with an established measure supports convergent validity, but
alpha of .58 is below the conventional .70 (or .90 for individual decision-making)
threshold. Alpha indexes internal consistency, not test-retest reliability, and low alpha
cannot be offset by convergent correlations. Thus A is the only defensible conclusion.
2. A client with panic disorder reports that after two sessions of interoceptive
exposure, their panic attacks have ceased. The therapist decides to discontinue
exposure and move to cognitive restructuring. This decision is most problematic
because:
A. Cognitive restructuring is contraindicated before exposure is complete.
B. Premature discontinuation of exposure may prevent extinction learning and increase
relapse risk.
C. Interoceptive exposure should always be followed by in vivo exposure first.
D. Panic attacks typically resolve spontaneously, so treatment was unnecessary.
Answer: B. Premature discontinuation of exposure may prevent extinction learning
and increase relapse risk.
Rationale: Exposure-based treatments require sufficient trials for fear extinction and
generalization; stopping after two sessions risks return of fear. Cognitive restructuring is
Page 1 of 80
,not contraindicated but is typically integrated, not a replacement. In vivo exposure is often
added concurrently, not a mandatory prerequisite, and spontaneous remission is not
assumed.
Page 2 of 80
,3. A neuropsychologist evaluates a patient with suspected Alzheimer's disease. Which
pattern of performance on the Wechsler Memory Scale-IV and Trail Making Test is
most consistent with early-stage Alzheimer's versus vascular dementia?
A. Severe immediate recall deficits with relative preservation of executive function.
B. Patchy deficits with stepwise progression and focal executive impairment.
C. Global, uniform decline across all cognitive domains.
D. Isolated language impairment with intact memory.
Answer: A. Severe immediate recall deficits with relative preservation of executive
function.
Rationale: Alzheimer's disease typically presents with prominent episodic memory
encoding deficits (immediate and delayed recall) while executive function may be relatively
spared early. Vascular dementia more often shows patchy, stepwise decline with early
executive dysfunction. Global uniform decline is late-stage, and isolated language
impairment suggests primary progressive aphasia.
4. During a therapy session, a client discloses intent to seriously harm a specific
identifiable person. The therapist practices in a state with a mandatory duty-to-protect
statute. Which action is most legally and ethically appropriate?
A. Maintain confidentiality and attempt to persuade the client to hospitalize voluntarily.
B. Warn the intended victim and notify law enforcement, consistent with the statute.
C. Document the threat but take no action because the client has not yet acted.
D. Consult with a colleague and wait for the next session to reassess risk.
Answer: B. Warn the intended victim and notify law enforcement, consistent with the
statute.
Rationale: Under Tarasoff-derived mandatory duty-to-protect statutes, the clinician must
take reasonable steps to protect the identifiable victim, typically warning the victim and
notifying authorities. Confidentiality is overridden by the duty. Waiting or merely
documenting fails the legal standard, and voluntary hospitalization persuasion is
insufficient when the statute mandates action.
Page 3 of 80
, 5. A researcher conducts a 2 x 3 ANOVA and finds a significant interaction. Which
follow-up analysis is most appropriate to interpret the interaction?
A. Post hoc Tukey HSD on all cell means.
B. Simple main effects analysis.
C. Pearson correlation between the two factors.
D. Independent samples t-test on the marginal means.
Answer: B. Simple main effects analysis.
Rationale: A significant interaction indicates the effect of one factor depends on the level of
the other, so simple main effects (examining one factor at each level of the other) are the
standard follow-up. Tukey HSD is for pairwise comparisons without interaction focus;
correlation is inappropriate for categorical factors; t-tests on marginal means ignore the
interaction.
6. A supervisor notices a supervisee consistently avoids discussing clients' racial
identities and becomes defensive when challenged. According to multicultural
supervision models, the most effective supervisory intervention is to:
A. Assign the supervisee only clients from the same racial background.
B. Explore the supervisee's own racial identity development and biases in a non-shaming
manner.
C. Terminate supervision due to incompetence.
D. Focus exclusively on technique to avoid discomfort.
Answer: B. Explore the supervisee's own racial identity development and biases in a
non-shaming manner.
Rationale: Multicultural supervision emphasizes developing supervisee cultural
self-awareness and addressing biases through reflective, non-punitive exploration.
Avoidance or segregation of clients perpetuates incompetence; termination is premature;
ignoring cultural factors undermines ethical practice and client care.
Page 4 of 80
Psychology (EPPP) with Practice
Questions And Co
1. A researcher finds that a new 12-item depression scale correlates r = .82 with the
BDI-II but shows a coefficient alpha of .58. Which psychometric conclusion is most
defensible?
A. The scale demonstrates adequate convergent validity but insufficient internal
consistency for individual clinical decision-making.
B. The high correlation with the BDI-II compensates for low alpha, supporting clinical
use.
C. The scale has acceptable internal consistency because alpha exceeds .50.
D. The scale's low alpha indicates poor test-retest reliability.
Answer: A. The scale demonstrates adequate convergent validity but insufficient
internal consistency for individual clinical decision-making.
Rationale: High correlation with an established measure supports convergent validity, but
alpha of .58 is below the conventional .70 (or .90 for individual decision-making)
threshold. Alpha indexes internal consistency, not test-retest reliability, and low alpha
cannot be offset by convergent correlations. Thus A is the only defensible conclusion.
2. A client with panic disorder reports that after two sessions of interoceptive
exposure, their panic attacks have ceased. The therapist decides to discontinue
exposure and move to cognitive restructuring. This decision is most problematic
because:
A. Cognitive restructuring is contraindicated before exposure is complete.
B. Premature discontinuation of exposure may prevent extinction learning and increase
relapse risk.
C. Interoceptive exposure should always be followed by in vivo exposure first.
D. Panic attacks typically resolve spontaneously, so treatment was unnecessary.
Answer: B. Premature discontinuation of exposure may prevent extinction learning
and increase relapse risk.
Rationale: Exposure-based treatments require sufficient trials for fear extinction and
generalization; stopping after two sessions risks return of fear. Cognitive restructuring is
Page 1 of 80
,not contraindicated but is typically integrated, not a replacement. In vivo exposure is often
added concurrently, not a mandatory prerequisite, and spontaneous remission is not
assumed.
Page 2 of 80
,3. A neuropsychologist evaluates a patient with suspected Alzheimer's disease. Which
pattern of performance on the Wechsler Memory Scale-IV and Trail Making Test is
most consistent with early-stage Alzheimer's versus vascular dementia?
A. Severe immediate recall deficits with relative preservation of executive function.
B. Patchy deficits with stepwise progression and focal executive impairment.
C. Global, uniform decline across all cognitive domains.
D. Isolated language impairment with intact memory.
Answer: A. Severe immediate recall deficits with relative preservation of executive
function.
Rationale: Alzheimer's disease typically presents with prominent episodic memory
encoding deficits (immediate and delayed recall) while executive function may be relatively
spared early. Vascular dementia more often shows patchy, stepwise decline with early
executive dysfunction. Global uniform decline is late-stage, and isolated language
impairment suggests primary progressive aphasia.
4. During a therapy session, a client discloses intent to seriously harm a specific
identifiable person. The therapist practices in a state with a mandatory duty-to-protect
statute. Which action is most legally and ethically appropriate?
A. Maintain confidentiality and attempt to persuade the client to hospitalize voluntarily.
B. Warn the intended victim and notify law enforcement, consistent with the statute.
C. Document the threat but take no action because the client has not yet acted.
D. Consult with a colleague and wait for the next session to reassess risk.
Answer: B. Warn the intended victim and notify law enforcement, consistent with the
statute.
Rationale: Under Tarasoff-derived mandatory duty-to-protect statutes, the clinician must
take reasonable steps to protect the identifiable victim, typically warning the victim and
notifying authorities. Confidentiality is overridden by the duty. Waiting or merely
documenting fails the legal standard, and voluntary hospitalization persuasion is
insufficient when the statute mandates action.
Page 3 of 80
, 5. A researcher conducts a 2 x 3 ANOVA and finds a significant interaction. Which
follow-up analysis is most appropriate to interpret the interaction?
A. Post hoc Tukey HSD on all cell means.
B. Simple main effects analysis.
C. Pearson correlation between the two factors.
D. Independent samples t-test on the marginal means.
Answer: B. Simple main effects analysis.
Rationale: A significant interaction indicates the effect of one factor depends on the level of
the other, so simple main effects (examining one factor at each level of the other) are the
standard follow-up. Tukey HSD is for pairwise comparisons without interaction focus;
correlation is inappropriate for categorical factors; t-tests on marginal means ignore the
interaction.
6. A supervisor notices a supervisee consistently avoids discussing clients' racial
identities and becomes defensive when challenged. According to multicultural
supervision models, the most effective supervisory intervention is to:
A. Assign the supervisee only clients from the same racial background.
B. Explore the supervisee's own racial identity development and biases in a non-shaming
manner.
C. Terminate supervision due to incompetence.
D. Focus exclusively on technique to avoid discomfort.
Answer: B. Explore the supervisee's own racial identity development and biases in a
non-shaming manner.
Rationale: Multicultural supervision emphasizes developing supervisee cultural
self-awareness and addressing biases through reflective, non-punitive exploration.
Avoidance or segregation of clients perpetuates incompetence; termination is premature;
ignoring cultural factors undermines ethical practice and client care.
Page 4 of 80
