VERIFIED ASSESSMENT RESOURCE
A+
University of Texas at Arlington VERIFIED
CLINICAL ASSESSMENT • DIAGNOSTIC REASONING
NURS 5220 Exam 2 | Advanced Health
Assessment | UTA 2026/2027 – Questions
and Answers | Clinical Assessment |
Diagnostic Reasoning – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
50
PA S S G U A R A N T E E D • A + G R A D E D • 2 0 2 0 2 7
5 50
QUESTIONS SECTIONS R AT I O N A L E S
W H AT T H I S C O V E R S
01 Cardiovascular Assessment 02 Respiratory Assessment
03 Abdominal and Gastrointestinal Assessment 04 Neurological Assessment
05 Musculoskeletal and Integumentary Assessment
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
This assessment evaluates advanced health assessment competency at the graduate nursing level. Items integrate
anatomy, physiology, history-taking, physical examination techniques, and diagnostic reasoning across five body systems.
Each scenario requires the learner to interpret clinical findings, recognize normal versus abnormal variations, prioritize
differential diagnoses, and select appropriate next steps. Rationales emphasize evidence-based practice and the clinical
decision-making process central to advanced practice nursing.
A D VA N C E D A P P L I C AT I O N / A N A LY S I S PA S S I N G 8 0 % 4-OPTION MCQ D E TA I L E D R AT I O N A L E S
PA S S I N G S C O R E D I F F I C U LT Y F O R M AT Y E A R TA G
80% Advanced Multiple Choice
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM
,NURS 5220 EXAM 2: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT 50 Questions | Pass: 80% | 2026/2027
NURS 5220 Exam 2 | Advanced Health Assessment | UTA
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
Total Questions: 50 Sections: 5 Passing Score: 80% Difficulty: Advanced
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR ASSESSMENT
10 questions • Application/Analysis • Select the single best answer.
1. A 58-year-old male presents with substernal chest pain rated 7/10, diaphoresis, and nausea. The pain radiates to
the left jaw. Which finding on ECG most strongly suggests acute myocardial infarction?
A. PR interval of 0.16 seconds B. Isolated T-wave inversion in lead aVR
C. ST-segment elevation of at least 1 mm in two D. QTc interval of 420 ms
contiguous leads
CORRECT ANSWER: C. ST-segment elevation of at least 1 mm in two contiguous leads
Rationale: ST-segment elevation of >=1 mm in two anatomically contiguous leads is a hallmark of ST-elevation myocardial
infarction (STEMI), warranting emergent reperfusion therapy. PR and QT intervals reflect conduction parameters, and isolated
T-wave inversions are nonspecific. Contiguous lead involvement distinguishes true ischemia from nonspecific changes.
2. On auscultation of the precordium, you hear a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic murmur loudest at the apex with
radiation to the axilla. Which valvular abnormality is most consistent with these findings?
A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Pulmonic regurgitation D. Tricuspid stenosis
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Mitral regurgitation
Rationale: A high-pitched, blowing holosystolic murmur loudest at the apex with radiation to the axilla is classic for mitral
regurgitation, caused by retrograde flow from the left ventricle to the left atrium during systole. Aortic stenosis produces a
crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids.
3. A 67-year-old with chronic heart failure presents with bilateral crackles halfway up the lung fields, JVD at 12 cm,
and 2+ pitting edema to the knees. Which hemodynamic profile best explains these findings?
A. Low cardiac output, low filling pressures (cold and B. Adequate cardiac output, elevated filling pressures
dry) (warm and wet)
C. Adequate cardiac output, normal filling pressures D. Low cardiac output, normal filling pressures (cold
(warm and dry) and dry)
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Adequate cardiac output, elevated filling pressures (warm and wet)
Rationale: The patient is 'warm and wet' - signs of volume overload (crackles, JVD, edema) without hypoperfusion, indicating
elevated filling pressures with adequate cardiac output. Treatment focuses on diuresis. 'Cold' profiles with hypoperfusion require
inotropes; 'dry' profiles require cautious fluid management.
4. During a cardiovascular exam, you note a loud S1, a mid-diastolic rumble heard best at the apex with the bell in the
left lateral decubitus position. Which valvular disorder is most likely?
A. Aortic regurgitation B. Mitral stenosis
C. Pulmonic stenosis D. Tricuspid regurgitation
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Mitral stenosis
Rationale: A loud S1 with a mid-diastolic rumble at the apex (heard best with the bell in left lateral decubitus) is classic for mitral
stenosis, most often caused by rheumatic heart disease. The stenotic valve restricts diastolic flow from the left atrium to the left
ventricle, producing the low-frequency rumble.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, NURS 5220 EXAM 2: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT 50 Questions | Pass: 80% | 2026/2027
5. A 72-year-old presents with syncope, palpitations, and an irregularly irregular pulse. On ECG, no discrete P waves
are visible and the QRS is narrow. Which arrhythmia is most likely?
A. Sinus bradycardia with first-degree AV block B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Atrial fibrillation D. Supraventricular tachycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Atrial fibrillation
Rationale: An irregularly irregular pulse with absent P waves and narrow QRS on ECG is diagnostic of atrial fibrillation.
Management focuses on rate or rhythm control and anticoagulation based on CHA2DS2-VASc score. Ventricular tachycardia
produces wide QRS; SVT is typically regular.
6. A 45-year-old male has a blood pressure of 162/98 mmHg on three separate visits, with no end-organ damage.
Which stage of hypertension does this represent per current ACC/AHA guidelines?
A. Stage 1 hypertension B. Stage 2 hypertension
C. Elevated blood pressure D. Hypertensive emergency
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stage 2 hypertension
Rationale: Per 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, Stage 2 hypertension is defined as systolic BP >=140 mmHg or diastolic BP >=90 mmHg
on confirmed measurement. A reading of 162/98 mmHg meets Stage 2 criteria. Stage 1 is 130-139/80-89; elevated is 120-129/<80.
Hypertensive emergency requires acute end-organ damage.
7. Auscultation of a 60-year-old reveals a harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right second
intercostal space with radiation to the carotids. Which additional finding typically accompanies this valvular lesion?
A. Bifid P wave on ECG B. Delayed carotid upstroke (pulsus parvus et tardus)
C. Rapid, bounding carotid upstroke (Corrigan pulse) D. Pulsus alternans
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Delayed carotid upstroke (pulsus parvus et tardus)
Rationale: A harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right second intercostal space radiating to the carotids is classic
for aortic stenosis. The hallmark peripheral finding is a delayed and weakened carotid upstroke (pulsus parvus et tardus) due to the
fixed obstruction to LV outflow. Corrigan pulse is seen in aortic regurgitation.
8. A 55-year-old with chronic kidney disease presents with crampy chest pain, shortness of breath, and an ECG
showing peaked T waves (>10 mm), widened QRS, and prolonged PR interval. Which electrolyte abnormality is most
consistent with this presentation?
A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyponatremia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Peaked T waves, widened QRS, and prolonged PR interval are classic ECG changes of hyperkalemia, which is common in
chronic kidney disease due to impaired renal potassium excretion. Emergency management includes IV calcium for membrane
stabilization, insulin/glucose, beta-agonists, and potassium-binding agents or dialysis as needed.
9. A 63-year-old male presents with painless, milky-white urine. Urinalysis shows no RBCs, no WBCs, and
triglyceride-laden chylomicrons. Which finding on physical exam is most likely associated with the underlying cause?
A. Lower extremity pitting edema from lymphatic B. Cafe-au-lait spots on the abdomen
obstruction
C. Decreased femoral pulses bilaterally D. Inguinal hernia on the right side
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Lower extremity pitting edema from lymphatic obstruction
Rationale: Chyluria (milky-white urine containing chylomicrons) results from lymphatic obstruction that causes lymphaticovenous
communication into the urinary tract. The most common causes include filariasis, malignancy, and trauma. Lower extremity
lymphedema is a frequent associated finding due to underlying lymphatic dysfunction.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 2
A+
University of Texas at Arlington VERIFIED
CLINICAL ASSESSMENT • DIAGNOSTIC REASONING
NURS 5220 Exam 2 | Advanced Health
Assessment | UTA 2026/2027 – Questions
and Answers | Clinical Assessment |
Diagnostic Reasoning – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
50
PA S S G U A R A N T E E D • A + G R A D E D • 2 0 2 0 2 7
5 50
QUESTIONS SECTIONS R AT I O N A L E S
W H AT T H I S C O V E R S
01 Cardiovascular Assessment 02 Respiratory Assessment
03 Abdominal and Gastrointestinal Assessment 04 Neurological Assessment
05 Musculoskeletal and Integumentary Assessment
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
This assessment evaluates advanced health assessment competency at the graduate nursing level. Items integrate
anatomy, physiology, history-taking, physical examination techniques, and diagnostic reasoning across five body systems.
Each scenario requires the learner to interpret clinical findings, recognize normal versus abnormal variations, prioritize
differential diagnoses, and select appropriate next steps. Rationales emphasize evidence-based practice and the clinical
decision-making process central to advanced practice nursing.
A D VA N C E D A P P L I C AT I O N / A N A LY S I S PA S S I N G 8 0 % 4-OPTION MCQ D E TA I L E D R AT I O N A L E S
PA S S I N G S C O R E D I F F I C U LT Y F O R M AT Y E A R TA G
80% Advanced Multiple Choice
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM
,NURS 5220 EXAM 2: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT 50 Questions | Pass: 80% | 2026/2027
NURS 5220 Exam 2 | Advanced Health Assessment | UTA
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
Total Questions: 50 Sections: 5 Passing Score: 80% Difficulty: Advanced
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR ASSESSMENT
10 questions • Application/Analysis • Select the single best answer.
1. A 58-year-old male presents with substernal chest pain rated 7/10, diaphoresis, and nausea. The pain radiates to
the left jaw. Which finding on ECG most strongly suggests acute myocardial infarction?
A. PR interval of 0.16 seconds B. Isolated T-wave inversion in lead aVR
C. ST-segment elevation of at least 1 mm in two D. QTc interval of 420 ms
contiguous leads
CORRECT ANSWER: C. ST-segment elevation of at least 1 mm in two contiguous leads
Rationale: ST-segment elevation of >=1 mm in two anatomically contiguous leads is a hallmark of ST-elevation myocardial
infarction (STEMI), warranting emergent reperfusion therapy. PR and QT intervals reflect conduction parameters, and isolated
T-wave inversions are nonspecific. Contiguous lead involvement distinguishes true ischemia from nonspecific changes.
2. On auscultation of the precordium, you hear a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic murmur loudest at the apex with
radiation to the axilla. Which valvular abnormality is most consistent with these findings?
A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Pulmonic regurgitation D. Tricuspid stenosis
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Mitral regurgitation
Rationale: A high-pitched, blowing holosystolic murmur loudest at the apex with radiation to the axilla is classic for mitral
regurgitation, caused by retrograde flow from the left ventricle to the left atrium during systole. Aortic stenosis produces a
crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids.
3. A 67-year-old with chronic heart failure presents with bilateral crackles halfway up the lung fields, JVD at 12 cm,
and 2+ pitting edema to the knees. Which hemodynamic profile best explains these findings?
A. Low cardiac output, low filling pressures (cold and B. Adequate cardiac output, elevated filling pressures
dry) (warm and wet)
C. Adequate cardiac output, normal filling pressures D. Low cardiac output, normal filling pressures (cold
(warm and dry) and dry)
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Adequate cardiac output, elevated filling pressures (warm and wet)
Rationale: The patient is 'warm and wet' - signs of volume overload (crackles, JVD, edema) without hypoperfusion, indicating
elevated filling pressures with adequate cardiac output. Treatment focuses on diuresis. 'Cold' profiles with hypoperfusion require
inotropes; 'dry' profiles require cautious fluid management.
4. During a cardiovascular exam, you note a loud S1, a mid-diastolic rumble heard best at the apex with the bell in the
left lateral decubitus position. Which valvular disorder is most likely?
A. Aortic regurgitation B. Mitral stenosis
C. Pulmonic stenosis D. Tricuspid regurgitation
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Mitral stenosis
Rationale: A loud S1 with a mid-diastolic rumble at the apex (heard best with the bell in left lateral decubitus) is classic for mitral
stenosis, most often caused by rheumatic heart disease. The stenotic valve restricts diastolic flow from the left atrium to the left
ventricle, producing the low-frequency rumble.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, NURS 5220 EXAM 2: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT 50 Questions | Pass: 80% | 2026/2027
5. A 72-year-old presents with syncope, palpitations, and an irregularly irregular pulse. On ECG, no discrete P waves
are visible and the QRS is narrow. Which arrhythmia is most likely?
A. Sinus bradycardia with first-degree AV block B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Atrial fibrillation D. Supraventricular tachycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Atrial fibrillation
Rationale: An irregularly irregular pulse with absent P waves and narrow QRS on ECG is diagnostic of atrial fibrillation.
Management focuses on rate or rhythm control and anticoagulation based on CHA2DS2-VASc score. Ventricular tachycardia
produces wide QRS; SVT is typically regular.
6. A 45-year-old male has a blood pressure of 162/98 mmHg on three separate visits, with no end-organ damage.
Which stage of hypertension does this represent per current ACC/AHA guidelines?
A. Stage 1 hypertension B. Stage 2 hypertension
C. Elevated blood pressure D. Hypertensive emergency
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stage 2 hypertension
Rationale: Per 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, Stage 2 hypertension is defined as systolic BP >=140 mmHg or diastolic BP >=90 mmHg
on confirmed measurement. A reading of 162/98 mmHg meets Stage 2 criteria. Stage 1 is 130-139/80-89; elevated is 120-129/<80.
Hypertensive emergency requires acute end-organ damage.
7. Auscultation of a 60-year-old reveals a harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right second
intercostal space with radiation to the carotids. Which additional finding typically accompanies this valvular lesion?
A. Bifid P wave on ECG B. Delayed carotid upstroke (pulsus parvus et tardus)
C. Rapid, bounding carotid upstroke (Corrigan pulse) D. Pulsus alternans
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Delayed carotid upstroke (pulsus parvus et tardus)
Rationale: A harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right second intercostal space radiating to the carotids is classic
for aortic stenosis. The hallmark peripheral finding is a delayed and weakened carotid upstroke (pulsus parvus et tardus) due to the
fixed obstruction to LV outflow. Corrigan pulse is seen in aortic regurgitation.
8. A 55-year-old with chronic kidney disease presents with crampy chest pain, shortness of breath, and an ECG
showing peaked T waves (>10 mm), widened QRS, and prolonged PR interval. Which electrolyte abnormality is most
consistent with this presentation?
A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia D. Hyponatremia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Peaked T waves, widened QRS, and prolonged PR interval are classic ECG changes of hyperkalemia, which is common in
chronic kidney disease due to impaired renal potassium excretion. Emergency management includes IV calcium for membrane
stabilization, insulin/glucose, beta-agonists, and potassium-binding agents or dialysis as needed.
9. A 63-year-old male presents with painless, milky-white urine. Urinalysis shows no RBCs, no WBCs, and
triglyceride-laden chylomicrons. Which finding on physical exam is most likely associated with the underlying cause?
A. Lower extremity pitting edema from lymphatic B. Cafe-au-lait spots on the abdomen
obstruction
C. Decreased femoral pulses bilaterally D. Inguinal hernia on the right side
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Lower extremity pitting edema from lymphatic obstruction
Rationale: Chyluria (milky-white urine containing chylomicrons) results from lymphatic obstruction that causes lymphaticovenous
communication into the urinary tract. The most common causes include filariasis, malignancy, and trauma. Lower extremity
lymphedema is a frequent associated finding due to underlying lymphatic dysfunction.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 2
