California Psychiatric Technician
Licensure Examination with Practice
Questions And Corre
1. A patient on clozapine presents with fever, tachycardia, and a creatine kinase level
of 1200 U/L. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer the next scheduled dose of clozapine and monitor vital signs.
B. Hold clozapine and notify the provider immediately for possible neuroleptic
malignant syndrome.
C. Obtain an ECG to evaluate for QT prolongation.
D. Encourage oral fluids and administer acetaminophen for fever.
Answer: B. Hold clozapine and notify the provider immediately for possible
neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Rationale: Fever, tachycardia, and elevated CK suggest neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(NMS), a life-threatening emergency; clozapine must be held and provider notified.
Administering clozapine (A) worsens the condition. ECG (C) is not the priority, and
symptomatic treatment (D) delays definitive care.
2. Which legal principle allows a psychiatric technician to initiate an involuntary hold
for a patient who is a danger to self due to a mental disorder?
A. Tarasoff duty to warn
B. Informed consent doctrine
C. Parens patriae authority
D. Respondeat superior
Answer: C. Parens patriae authority
Rationale: Parens patriae is the state's authority to protect individuals who cannot care for
themselves, justifying involuntary holds for danger to self. Tarasoff (A) concerns duty to
warn third parties. Informed consent (B) relates to treatment authorization, and respondeat
superior (D) is employer liability.
Page 1 of 75
,3. During a group therapy session, a patient suddenly becomes agitated and verbally
threatens another member. Which de-escalation technique should the technician
employ first?
A. Firmly instruct the patient to leave the group immediately.
B. Use a calm, non-confrontational tone and offer to move to a quieter area to talk.
C. Administer PRN haloperidol as ordered to prevent violence.
D. Call security to physically restrain the patient.
Answer: B. Use a calm, non-confrontational tone and offer to move to a quieter area to
talk.
Rationale: Initial de-escalation involves calm communication and offering a change of
environment to reduce stimulation. Directing the patient to leave (A) may escalate.
Medication (C) or restraints (D) are later interventions if verbal de-escalation fails and
imminent danger persists.
4. A patient with schizophrenia reports, 'The FBI has implanted a chip in my brain to
control my thoughts.' Which symptom is the patient experiencing?
A. Thought broadcasting
B. Somatic delusion
C. Delusion of control
D. Auditory hallucination
Answer: C. Delusion of control
Rationale: A delusion of control involves the belief that external forces control one's
thoughts or actions, as described. Thought broadcasting (A) is the belief that thoughts are
audible to others. Somatic delusion (B) relates to bodily functions, and auditory
hallucination (D) is a sensory perception without external stimulus.
Page 2 of 75
,5. Which statement by a psychiatric technician demonstrates correct understanding of
transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) for major depressive disorder?
A. TMS requires general anesthesia and causes seizures in most patients.
B. TMS is a non-invasive procedure that uses magnetic fields to stimulate nerve cells in
the brain.
C. TMS is only effective for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
D. TMS involves implanting electrodes deep into the brain.
Answer: B. TMS is a non-invasive procedure that uses magnetic fields to stimulate
nerve cells in the brain.
Rationale: TMS is a non-invasive neuromodulation technique using magnetic fields to
stimulate cortical neurons, primarily for depression. It does not require anesthesia (A), is
not for schizophrenia (C), and does not involve implants (D); deep brain stimulation
involves electrodes.
6. A patient receiving lithium therapy reports coarse hand tremors, vomiting, and
blurred vision. Which serum lithium level is most consistent with these findings?
A. 0.6 mEq/L
B. 1.0 mEq/L
C. 1.8 mEq/L
D. 2.5 mEq/L
Answer: C. 1.8 mEq/L
Rationale: Coarse tremors, vomiting, and blurred vision indicate moderate lithium toxicity,
typically seen at levels 1.5-2.0 mEq/L. Levels 0.6-1.2 (A, B) are therapeutic. A level of 2.5
mEq/L (D) would present with severe toxicity including seizures and coma.
Page 3 of 75
, 7. A psychiatric technician is caring for a patient with anorexia nervosa who has a
BMI of 15.2 and reports palpitations. Which complication is most immediately
life-threatening?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Hypokalemia
C. Refeeding syndrome
D. Lanugo
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Hypokalemia from purging or malnutrition can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias,
especially with palpitations. Osteoporosis (A) is chronic. Refeeding syndrome (C) occurs
after refeeding, not immediately. Lanugo (D) is a physical sign, not life-threatening.
8. Which intervention best addresses the immediate safety needs of a patient
experiencing a panic attack?
A. Encourage the patient to identify the source of anxiety.
B. Administer lorazepam as ordered and stay with the patient.
C. Teach deep breathing exercises and remain calm.
D. Move the patient to a quiet area and provide a blanket.
Answer: C. Teach deep breathing exercises and remain calm.
Rationale: During a panic attack, the priority is to reduce anxiety through calm presence
and breathing techniques. Identifying the source (A) is later. Medication (B) may be used
but is not first-line unless severe. Moving to a quiet area (D) helps but deep breathing is
more direct.
Page 4 of 75
Licensure Examination with Practice
Questions And Corre
1. A patient on clozapine presents with fever, tachycardia, and a creatine kinase level
of 1200 U/L. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer the next scheduled dose of clozapine and monitor vital signs.
B. Hold clozapine and notify the provider immediately for possible neuroleptic
malignant syndrome.
C. Obtain an ECG to evaluate for QT prolongation.
D. Encourage oral fluids and administer acetaminophen for fever.
Answer: B. Hold clozapine and notify the provider immediately for possible
neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Rationale: Fever, tachycardia, and elevated CK suggest neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(NMS), a life-threatening emergency; clozapine must be held and provider notified.
Administering clozapine (A) worsens the condition. ECG (C) is not the priority, and
symptomatic treatment (D) delays definitive care.
2. Which legal principle allows a psychiatric technician to initiate an involuntary hold
for a patient who is a danger to self due to a mental disorder?
A. Tarasoff duty to warn
B. Informed consent doctrine
C. Parens patriae authority
D. Respondeat superior
Answer: C. Parens patriae authority
Rationale: Parens patriae is the state's authority to protect individuals who cannot care for
themselves, justifying involuntary holds for danger to self. Tarasoff (A) concerns duty to
warn third parties. Informed consent (B) relates to treatment authorization, and respondeat
superior (D) is employer liability.
Page 1 of 75
,3. During a group therapy session, a patient suddenly becomes agitated and verbally
threatens another member. Which de-escalation technique should the technician
employ first?
A. Firmly instruct the patient to leave the group immediately.
B. Use a calm, non-confrontational tone and offer to move to a quieter area to talk.
C. Administer PRN haloperidol as ordered to prevent violence.
D. Call security to physically restrain the patient.
Answer: B. Use a calm, non-confrontational tone and offer to move to a quieter area to
talk.
Rationale: Initial de-escalation involves calm communication and offering a change of
environment to reduce stimulation. Directing the patient to leave (A) may escalate.
Medication (C) or restraints (D) are later interventions if verbal de-escalation fails and
imminent danger persists.
4. A patient with schizophrenia reports, 'The FBI has implanted a chip in my brain to
control my thoughts.' Which symptom is the patient experiencing?
A. Thought broadcasting
B. Somatic delusion
C. Delusion of control
D. Auditory hallucination
Answer: C. Delusion of control
Rationale: A delusion of control involves the belief that external forces control one's
thoughts or actions, as described. Thought broadcasting (A) is the belief that thoughts are
audible to others. Somatic delusion (B) relates to bodily functions, and auditory
hallucination (D) is a sensory perception without external stimulus.
Page 2 of 75
,5. Which statement by a psychiatric technician demonstrates correct understanding of
transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) for major depressive disorder?
A. TMS requires general anesthesia and causes seizures in most patients.
B. TMS is a non-invasive procedure that uses magnetic fields to stimulate nerve cells in
the brain.
C. TMS is only effective for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
D. TMS involves implanting electrodes deep into the brain.
Answer: B. TMS is a non-invasive procedure that uses magnetic fields to stimulate
nerve cells in the brain.
Rationale: TMS is a non-invasive neuromodulation technique using magnetic fields to
stimulate cortical neurons, primarily for depression. It does not require anesthesia (A), is
not for schizophrenia (C), and does not involve implants (D); deep brain stimulation
involves electrodes.
6. A patient receiving lithium therapy reports coarse hand tremors, vomiting, and
blurred vision. Which serum lithium level is most consistent with these findings?
A. 0.6 mEq/L
B. 1.0 mEq/L
C. 1.8 mEq/L
D. 2.5 mEq/L
Answer: C. 1.8 mEq/L
Rationale: Coarse tremors, vomiting, and blurred vision indicate moderate lithium toxicity,
typically seen at levels 1.5-2.0 mEq/L. Levels 0.6-1.2 (A, B) are therapeutic. A level of 2.5
mEq/L (D) would present with severe toxicity including seizures and coma.
Page 3 of 75
, 7. A psychiatric technician is caring for a patient with anorexia nervosa who has a
BMI of 15.2 and reports palpitations. Which complication is most immediately
life-threatening?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Hypokalemia
C. Refeeding syndrome
D. Lanugo
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Hypokalemia from purging or malnutrition can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias,
especially with palpitations. Osteoporosis (A) is chronic. Refeeding syndrome (C) occurs
after refeeding, not immediately. Lanugo (D) is a physical sign, not life-threatening.
8. Which intervention best addresses the immediate safety needs of a patient
experiencing a panic attack?
A. Encourage the patient to identify the source of anxiety.
B. Administer lorazepam as ordered and stay with the patient.
C. Teach deep breathing exercises and remain calm.
D. Move the patient to a quiet area and provide a blanket.
Answer: C. Teach deep breathing exercises and remain calm.
Rationale: During a panic attack, the priority is to reduce anxiety through calm presence
and breathing techniques. Identifying the source (A) is later. Medication (B) may be used
but is not first-line unless severe. Moving to a quiet area (D) helps but deep breathing is
more direct.
Page 4 of 75
