California Dental Board Examination with
Practice Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified
1. Under the California Dental Practice Act, which action by a registered dental
assistant (RDA) would constitute an unlicensed practice of dentistry unless performed
under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist and with proper certification?
A. Placing and finishing composite restorations after the dentist has prepared the tooth
and determined occlusion.
B. Taking preliminary impressions for study models.
C. Applying topical fluoride varnish after a prophylaxis.
D. Exposing dental radiographs after passing the Radiation Safety Examination.
Answer: A. Placing and finishing composite restorations after the dentist has prepared
the tooth and determined occlusion.
Rationale: Placing and finishing composite restorations is an expanded function requiring
a specific RDAEF license and direct supervision; without that certification and supervision
it is unlicensed practice. B, C, and D are within the legal scope of an RDA or RDAEF
under general or direct supervision as defined by the Dental Board of California. The key
distinction is the level of supervision and the specific permit required for restorative
functions.
Page 1 of 79
,2. A dental office uses a glutaraldehyde-based high-level disinfectant for semicritical
instruments. Which monitoring practice is essential to ensure the solution remains
effective throughout its reuse period?
A. Testing the solution with a chemical indicator strip each time instruments are
immersed.
B. Performing a spore test with Geobacillus stearothermophilus weekly.
C. Using a manufacturer-provided test strip to verify minimum effective concentration
(MEC) before each use.
D. Autoclaving the solution between uses to maintain sterility.
Answer: C. Using a manufacturer-provided test strip to verify minimum effective
concentration (MEC) before each use.
Rationale: High-level disinfectants like glutaraldehyde require monitoring of minimum
effective concentration (MEC) using specific test strips to ensure the solution has not
diluted or expired. Spore testing (B) is for sterilizers, not liquid disinfectants. Chemical
indicator strips (A) do not measure concentration, and autoclaving the solution (D) would
degrade it.
Page 2 of 79
,3. A patient with a history of infective endocarditis is scheduled for a dental
extraction. According to current AHA guidelines, which regimen is appropriate for
prophylaxis?
A. Amoxicillin 2 g orally 1 hour before the procedure.
B. Clindamycin 600 mg orally 1 hour before the procedure.
C. Azithromycin 500 mg orally 1 hour before the procedure.
D. No prophylaxis is indicated for dental extraction.
Answer: A. Amoxicillin 2 g orally 1 hour before the procedure.
Rationale: Current AHA guidelines recommend amoxicillin 2 g orally 1 hour before dental
procedures for patients with a history of infective endocarditis. Clindamycin is no longer
recommended due to increased risk of C. difficile infection. Azithromycin is an alternative
for penicillin-allergic patients, but amoxicillin is first-line. Prophylaxis is indicated for
extractions in high-risk cardiac conditions.
4. When exposing a full-mouth series using paralleling technique, which factor most
directly affects geometric unsharpness of the radiographic image?
A. Increasing the source-to-image receptor distance (SID).
B. Decreasing the object-to-image receptor distance (OID).
C. Increasing the focal spot size.
D. Decreasing the exposure time.
Answer: C. Increasing the focal spot size.
Rationale: Geometric unsharpness is directly proportional to focal spot size; a larger focal
spot increases penumbra and reduces sharpness. Increasing SID (A) and decreasing OID
(B) reduce unsharpness by minimizing magnification. Exposure time (D) affects density, not
geometric sharpness.
Page 3 of 79
, 5. A patient presents with a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg and reports a severe
headache. The dentist plans to administer a local anesthetic containing 1:100,000
epinephrine. What is the most appropriate action?
A. Proceed with the planned injection, as epinephrine is safe at this dose.
B. Defer elective treatment and refer for immediate medical evaluation.
C. Administer the injection but reduce the epinephrine concentration to 1:200,000.
D. Proceed with the injection after administering sublingual nitroglycerin.
Answer: B. Defer elective treatment and refer for immediate medical evaluation.
Rationale: A blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg with symptoms indicates a hypertensive
urgency; elective dental treatment should be deferred and the patient referred for
immediate medical assessment. Epinephrine-containing anesthetics can exacerbate
hypertension. Reducing concentration (C) does not eliminate risk, and administering
nitroglycerin (D) is not within the dentist's scope without medical direction.
6. Which of the following statements best describes the legal principle of 'res ipsa
loquitur' as applied to dental malpractice in California?
A. The dentist is strictly liable for any injury occurring during treatment.
B. The plaintiff must prove negligence through expert testimony.
C. The nature of the injury itself may establish a presumption of negligence.
D. The dentist is protected by a Good Samaritan law.
Answer: C. The nature of the injury itself may establish a presumption of negligence.
Rationale: Res ipsa loquitur ('the thing speaks for itself') allows negligence to be inferred
when the injury is of a type that ordinarily does not occur without negligence and was
under the defendant's control. It does not impose strict liability (A) and does not eliminate
the need for expert testimony in most dental cases (B). Good Samaritan laws (D) apply to
emergency care outside the normal scope of practice.
Page 4 of 79
Practice Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified
1. Under the California Dental Practice Act, which action by a registered dental
assistant (RDA) would constitute an unlicensed practice of dentistry unless performed
under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist and with proper certification?
A. Placing and finishing composite restorations after the dentist has prepared the tooth
and determined occlusion.
B. Taking preliminary impressions for study models.
C. Applying topical fluoride varnish after a prophylaxis.
D. Exposing dental radiographs after passing the Radiation Safety Examination.
Answer: A. Placing and finishing composite restorations after the dentist has prepared
the tooth and determined occlusion.
Rationale: Placing and finishing composite restorations is an expanded function requiring
a specific RDAEF license and direct supervision; without that certification and supervision
it is unlicensed practice. B, C, and D are within the legal scope of an RDA or RDAEF
under general or direct supervision as defined by the Dental Board of California. The key
distinction is the level of supervision and the specific permit required for restorative
functions.
Page 1 of 79
,2. A dental office uses a glutaraldehyde-based high-level disinfectant for semicritical
instruments. Which monitoring practice is essential to ensure the solution remains
effective throughout its reuse period?
A. Testing the solution with a chemical indicator strip each time instruments are
immersed.
B. Performing a spore test with Geobacillus stearothermophilus weekly.
C. Using a manufacturer-provided test strip to verify minimum effective concentration
(MEC) before each use.
D. Autoclaving the solution between uses to maintain sterility.
Answer: C. Using a manufacturer-provided test strip to verify minimum effective
concentration (MEC) before each use.
Rationale: High-level disinfectants like glutaraldehyde require monitoring of minimum
effective concentration (MEC) using specific test strips to ensure the solution has not
diluted or expired. Spore testing (B) is for sterilizers, not liquid disinfectants. Chemical
indicator strips (A) do not measure concentration, and autoclaving the solution (D) would
degrade it.
Page 2 of 79
,3. A patient with a history of infective endocarditis is scheduled for a dental
extraction. According to current AHA guidelines, which regimen is appropriate for
prophylaxis?
A. Amoxicillin 2 g orally 1 hour before the procedure.
B. Clindamycin 600 mg orally 1 hour before the procedure.
C. Azithromycin 500 mg orally 1 hour before the procedure.
D. No prophylaxis is indicated for dental extraction.
Answer: A. Amoxicillin 2 g orally 1 hour before the procedure.
Rationale: Current AHA guidelines recommend amoxicillin 2 g orally 1 hour before dental
procedures for patients with a history of infective endocarditis. Clindamycin is no longer
recommended due to increased risk of C. difficile infection. Azithromycin is an alternative
for penicillin-allergic patients, but amoxicillin is first-line. Prophylaxis is indicated for
extractions in high-risk cardiac conditions.
4. When exposing a full-mouth series using paralleling technique, which factor most
directly affects geometric unsharpness of the radiographic image?
A. Increasing the source-to-image receptor distance (SID).
B. Decreasing the object-to-image receptor distance (OID).
C. Increasing the focal spot size.
D. Decreasing the exposure time.
Answer: C. Increasing the focal spot size.
Rationale: Geometric unsharpness is directly proportional to focal spot size; a larger focal
spot increases penumbra and reduces sharpness. Increasing SID (A) and decreasing OID
(B) reduce unsharpness by minimizing magnification. Exposure time (D) affects density, not
geometric sharpness.
Page 3 of 79
, 5. A patient presents with a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg and reports a severe
headache. The dentist plans to administer a local anesthetic containing 1:100,000
epinephrine. What is the most appropriate action?
A. Proceed with the planned injection, as epinephrine is safe at this dose.
B. Defer elective treatment and refer for immediate medical evaluation.
C. Administer the injection but reduce the epinephrine concentration to 1:200,000.
D. Proceed with the injection after administering sublingual nitroglycerin.
Answer: B. Defer elective treatment and refer for immediate medical evaluation.
Rationale: A blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg with symptoms indicates a hypertensive
urgency; elective dental treatment should be deferred and the patient referred for
immediate medical assessment. Epinephrine-containing anesthetics can exacerbate
hypertension. Reducing concentration (C) does not eliminate risk, and administering
nitroglycerin (D) is not within the dentist's scope without medical direction.
6. Which of the following statements best describes the legal principle of 'res ipsa
loquitur' as applied to dental malpractice in California?
A. The dentist is strictly liable for any injury occurring during treatment.
B. The plaintiff must prove negligence through expert testimony.
C. The nature of the injury itself may establish a presumption of negligence.
D. The dentist is protected by a Good Samaritan law.
Answer: C. The nature of the injury itself may establish a presumption of negligence.
Rationale: Res ipsa loquitur ('the thing speaks for itself') allows negligence to be inferred
when the injury is of a type that ordinarily does not occur without negligence and was
under the defendant's control. It does not impose strict liability (A) and does not eliminate
the need for expert testimony in most dental cases (B). Good Samaritan laws (D) apply to
emergency care outside the normal scope of practice.
Page 4 of 79
