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Galen NSG 3280 Pathophysiology for Nurses I: Final Exam (Comprehensive) - Questions with Correct Answers

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1. Hyperkalemia is often caused by which medication class? A. Loop diuretics B. Thiazide diuretics C. Beta-2 agonists D. ACE inhibitors and potassium-sparing diuretics Correct Answer: D. ACE inhibitors and potassium-sparing diuretics Rationale: ACE inhibitors, ARBs and spironolactone reduce aldosterone effects, causing potassium retention, especially in kidney disease. Loop and thiazide diuretics cause potassium loss, and beta-2 agonists shift potassium into cells. 2. Administering a hypotonic IV solution causes water to move: A. Out of the cells, causing them to shrink B. Only into the plasma C. Nowhere, because it is isotonic D. Into the cells, causing them to swell Correct Answer: D. Into the cells, causing them to swell Rationale: A hypotonic solution lowers extracellular osmolality, so water moves into cells by osmosis. This is why hypotonic fluids are avoided in patients at risk for increased intracranial pressure. Hypertonic solutions pull water out of cells. 3. A patient with an opioid overdose has a respiratory rate of 6. The expect

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Galen NSG 3280 Pathophysiology for Nurses I: Final Exam
(Comprehensive) - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions

1. Hyperkalemia is often caused by which medication class?

A. Loop diuretics

B. Thiazide diuretics

C. Beta-2 agonists

D. ACE inhibitors and potassium-sparing diuretics

Correct Answer: D. ACE inhibitors and potassium-sparing diuretics
Rationale: ACE inhibitors, ARBs and spironolactone reduce aldosterone effects, causing potassium

retention, especially in kidney disease. Loop and thiazide diuretics cause potassium loss, and beta-2

agonists shift potassium into cells.


2. Administering a hypotonic IV solution causes water to move:

A. Out of the cells, causing them to shrink

B. Only into the plasma

C. Nowhere, because it is isotonic

D. Into the cells, causing them to swell

Correct Answer: D. Into the cells, causing them to swell
Rationale: A hypotonic solution lowers extracellular osmolality, so water moves into cells by osmosis.

This is why hypotonic fluids are avoided in patients at risk for increased intracranial pressure. Hypertonic

solutions pull water out of cells.


3. A patient with an opioid overdose has a respiratory rate of 6. The expected acid-base

imbalance is:

A. Respiratory alkalosis

B. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Respiratory acidosis

Correct Answer: D. Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: Opioids depress the respiratory center, causing hypoventilation and CO2 retention, which

forms carbonic acid. Respiratory alkalosis results from hyperventilation. Metabolic disorders originate in

bicarbonate or fixed acids.

,4. A shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right means:

A. Hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily to tissues

B. Hemoglobin holds oxygen more tightly

C. Less oxygen reaches tissues

D. Carbon monoxide is bound

Correct Answer: A. Hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily to tissues
Rationale: A right shift, caused by acidosis, high CO2, fever and increased 2,3-DPG, lowers

hemoglobin's oxygen affinity, helping unload oxygen in active tissues. Alkalosis, hypothermia and carbon

monoxide shift the curve left, impairing oxygen release.


5. C-reactive protein is an acute phase reactant produced by the:

A. Bone marrow

B. Spleen

C. Kidneys

D. Liver in response to IL-6

Correct Answer: D. Liver in response to IL-6
Rationale: IL-6 stimulates hepatocytes to produce CRP, fibrinogen and other acute phase proteins; CRP

rises within hours of inflammation and acts as an opsonin. It is a nonspecific marker. The marrow, spleen

and kidneys do not produce it.


6. The primary purpose of the inflammatory response is to:

A. Produce antibodies against specific antigens

B. Limit tissue damage, destroy invaders, remove debris, and prepare for healing

C. Create memory cells

D. Prevent all fever

Correct Answer: B. Limit tissue damage, destroy invaders, remove debris, and prepare for

healing
Rationale: Inflammation is rapid, nonspecific and does not require prior exposure; it contains injury and

begins repair. Antibody production and memory are features of adaptive immunity. Fever is often part of

the inflammatory response rather than prevented by it.

,7. A patient receives hepatitis B immune globulin after a needle-stick. This provides:

A. Artificial passive immunity that is immediate but temporary

B. Artificial active immunity that is lifelong

C. Natural active immunity

D. Natural passive immunity

Correct Answer: A. Artificial passive immunity that is immediate but temporary
Rationale: Immune globulin delivers preformed antibodies, giving immediate protection lasting weeks to

months without memory. The hepatitis B vaccine, given at the same time, produces active immunity.

Natural passive immunity comes from mother to baby.


8. A hapten is a small molecule that becomes immunogenic only when it:

A. Enters the bloodstream

B. Is phagocytosed

C. Binds to a larger carrier protein

D. Is filtered by the kidneys

Correct Answer: C. Binds to a larger carrier protein
Rationale: Haptens such as penicillin are too small alone but can bind host proteins and trigger immune

responses, explaining many drug allergies. Simply entering the blood or being filtered does not make

them immunogenic.


9. The first-line treatment for anaphylaxis is:

A. Oral antihistamine

B. Intramuscular epinephrine

C. Oral corticosteroid

D. Inhaled albuterol alone

Correct Answer: B. Intramuscular epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine reverses vasodilation, bronchoconstriction and mucosal edema through alpha

and beta effects, and delays increase mortality. Antihistamines and steroids are adjuncts that act too

slowly to prevent death. Albuterol treats bronchospasm only.

, 10. Hyperacute rejection of a transplanted kidney occurs:

A. Weeks after transplant from T cells

B. Within minutes to hours, from preformed recipient antibodies against donor antigens

C. Months to years later from chronic vascular damage

D. Only in liver transplants

Correct Answer: B. Within minutes to hours, from preformed recipient antibodies against

donor antigens
Rationale: Preformed antibodies, such as against ABO or HLA antigens, activate complement and cause

immediate thrombosis; crossmatching prevents it. Acute rejection is T-cell mediated and occurs within

weeks to months, and chronic rejection develops over years.


11. Culture and sensitivity testing is performed to:

A. Measure white blood cell count

B. Identify the organism and determine which antibiotics will be effective

C. Diagnose allergies

D. Measure antibody levels

Correct Answer: B. Identify the organism and determine which antibiotics will be effective
Rationale: Cultures identify the pathogen, and susceptibility testing guides targeted therapy, allowing

narrowing from broad-spectrum empiric antibiotics. Specimens should be collected before antibiotics

when possible.


12. A patient's reservoir of infection could include:

A. Only sick humans

B. People, animals, soil, water, or contaminated equipment

C. Only blood products

D. Only insects

Correct Answer: B. People, animals, soil, water, or contaminated equipment
Rationale: A reservoir is where a pathogen lives and multiplies; carriers without symptoms can also be

reservoirs. Environmental reservoirs include soil (tetanus) and water (Legionella). Reservoirs are not

limited to sick humans.

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