, UNIVERSITY OF CALIFORNIA, SAN FRANCISCO
SCHOOL OF PHARMACY / MEDICINE — U141 PHARMACOLOGY
Comprehensive Course Examination (100 Questions & Detailed Rationales)
Student Name: ___________________________ Date: ________________________
Student ID: _____________________________ Score: ________ / 100
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Select the single best answer for each of the 100 multiple-choice questions.
2. This examination covers fundamental and clinical principles of pharmacology: Pharmacokinetics,
Pharmacodynamics, Autonomic, Cardiovascular, Renal, CNS, Antimicrobial, Endocrine, Toxicology, and
Chemotherapy.
3. Complete detailed rationales are provided in the answer key section for comprehensive review.
SECTION 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 - 100)
Question 1. A 45-year-old patient is prescribed a lipophilic drug. Which of the following pharmacokinetic
parameters is most significantly affected by a high percentage of total body fat?
A. Clearance
B. Volume of distribution (Vd)
C. Bioavailability
D. Renal elimination rate
Question 2. Which of the following describes a drug that binds to a receptor and produces a submaximal
biological response even when occupying 100% of the receptors?
A. Competitive antagonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Full agonist
D. Inverse agonist
Question 3. A medication with a narrow therapeutic index requires therapeutic drug monitoring. Which of the
following pairs represents the narrowest therapeutic window?
A. Penicillin G and Amoxicillin
B. Warfarin and Digoxin
C. Ibuprofen and Acetaminophen
D. Metformin and Lisinopril
Question 4. In zero-order elimination kinetics, which of the following statements is true?
A. A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time
B. Elimination rate is proportional to plasma drug concentration
C. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
, D. The half-life remains constant regardless of dose
Question 5. If a drug has a clearance of 2 L/h and a volume of distribution of 40 L, what is its approximate
elimination half-life (t1/2)?
A. 7 hours
B. 13.8 hours
C. 20 hours
D. 0.035 hours
Question 6. First-pass hepatic metabolism primary reduces which drug parameter?
A. Volume of distribution
B. Half-life
C. Bioavailability
D. Renal excretion rate
Question 7. An inverse agonist produces which of the following physiological effects?
A. Blocks the effect of an agonist without altering baseline activity
B. Decreases basal constitutive receptor activity
C. Increases maximal receptor response
D. Binds irreversibly to allosteric sites
Question 8. Which Cytochrome P450 enzyme is responsible for metabolizing approximately 50% of clinically
used drugs?
A. CYP2D6
B. CYP2C9
C. CYP3A4
D. CYP1A2
Question 9. A patient receiving Rifampin co-administered with Warfarin will experience which of the following
outcome?
A. Increased risk of bleeding due to Warfarin inhibition
B. Decreased Warfarin efficacy due to CYP induction
C. Displacement of Warfarin from albumin
D. Renal failure due to synergistic nephrotoxicity
Question 10. Pro-drugs are pharmacologically inactive compounds that require biotransformation to become
active. Which of the following is an example of a pro-drug?
A. Enalapril
B. Lisinopril
C. Metoprolol
D. Gentamicin
Question 11. Bethanechol is clinically indicated for which of the following conditions?
A. Asthma exacerbation
B. Postoperative urinary retention
SCHOOL OF PHARMACY / MEDICINE — U141 PHARMACOLOGY
Comprehensive Course Examination (100 Questions & Detailed Rationales)
Student Name: ___________________________ Date: ________________________
Student ID: _____________________________ Score: ________ / 100
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Select the single best answer for each of the 100 multiple-choice questions.
2. This examination covers fundamental and clinical principles of pharmacology: Pharmacokinetics,
Pharmacodynamics, Autonomic, Cardiovascular, Renal, CNS, Antimicrobial, Endocrine, Toxicology, and
Chemotherapy.
3. Complete detailed rationales are provided in the answer key section for comprehensive review.
SECTION 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 - 100)
Question 1. A 45-year-old patient is prescribed a lipophilic drug. Which of the following pharmacokinetic
parameters is most significantly affected by a high percentage of total body fat?
A. Clearance
B. Volume of distribution (Vd)
C. Bioavailability
D. Renal elimination rate
Question 2. Which of the following describes a drug that binds to a receptor and produces a submaximal
biological response even when occupying 100% of the receptors?
A. Competitive antagonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Full agonist
D. Inverse agonist
Question 3. A medication with a narrow therapeutic index requires therapeutic drug monitoring. Which of the
following pairs represents the narrowest therapeutic window?
A. Penicillin G and Amoxicillin
B. Warfarin and Digoxin
C. Ibuprofen and Acetaminophen
D. Metformin and Lisinopril
Question 4. In zero-order elimination kinetics, which of the following statements is true?
A. A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time
B. Elimination rate is proportional to plasma drug concentration
C. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
, D. The half-life remains constant regardless of dose
Question 5. If a drug has a clearance of 2 L/h and a volume of distribution of 40 L, what is its approximate
elimination half-life (t1/2)?
A. 7 hours
B. 13.8 hours
C. 20 hours
D. 0.035 hours
Question 6. First-pass hepatic metabolism primary reduces which drug parameter?
A. Volume of distribution
B. Half-life
C. Bioavailability
D. Renal excretion rate
Question 7. An inverse agonist produces which of the following physiological effects?
A. Blocks the effect of an agonist without altering baseline activity
B. Decreases basal constitutive receptor activity
C. Increases maximal receptor response
D. Binds irreversibly to allosteric sites
Question 8. Which Cytochrome P450 enzyme is responsible for metabolizing approximately 50% of clinically
used drugs?
A. CYP2D6
B. CYP2C9
C. CYP3A4
D. CYP1A2
Question 9. A patient receiving Rifampin co-administered with Warfarin will experience which of the following
outcome?
A. Increased risk of bleeding due to Warfarin inhibition
B. Decreased Warfarin efficacy due to CYP induction
C. Displacement of Warfarin from albumin
D. Renal failure due to synergistic nephrotoxicity
Question 10. Pro-drugs are pharmacologically inactive compounds that require biotransformation to become
active. Which of the following is an example of a pro-drug?
A. Enalapril
B. Lisinopril
C. Metoprolol
D. Gentamicin
Question 11. Bethanechol is clinically indicated for which of the following conditions?
A. Asthma exacerbation
B. Postoperative urinary retention
