AMNH — Genetics and Genomics in Nursing Test Fall 2026/2027 | Correctly Answered
AMNH — Genetics and Genomics in Nursing Test
Fall 2026/2027 | Correctly Answered | Comprehensive 120-Question Exam
Aligned with AMNH Genetics in Nursing Education and ANA/ISONG Competencies
Exam Specifications: Exactly 120 questions across 7 sections | 30% recall, 50% application, 20% analysis | 75%
scenario-based, 25% direct recall. Each item includes four options (A–D), one correct answer marked [CORRECT],
and a detailed rationale with genetic principles, inheritance patterns, clinical implications, ethical considerations, and
nursing role standards.
Section 1: Foundations of Genetics and Genomics
Questions Q1–Q22 | Focus: DNA, RNA, Genes, Chromosomes, and Inheritance Patterns
Q1: A nurse is teaching a patient about the structure of DNA. Which statement by the patient indicates
CORRECT understanding?
A. DNA is a double helix composed of two strands of nucleotides connected by complementary base pairs
(A–T and C–G). [CORRECT]
B. DNA is a single-stranded molecule that contains the sugar ribose.
C. DNA contains the bases adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil.
D. DNA base pairs are connected by peptide bonds.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: DNA is a double helix of two nucleotide strands held together by complementary base pairs (adenine–thymine
and cytosine–guanine) joined by hydrogen bonds. Ribose and uracil are features of RNA, not DNA, and peptide bonds link
amino acids in proteins, not nucleotides in DNA.
Q2: Which RNA type carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosome for protein synthesis?
A. Messenger RNA (mRNA). [CORRECT]
B. Transfer RNA (tRNA).
C. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA).
D. MicroRNA (miRNA).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic message transcribed from DNA to the ribosome for translation into
protein. tRNA delivers amino acids, rRNA is part of the ribosome structure, and miRNA regulates gene expression rather
than carrying the coding message.
Q3: Which process BEST describes transcription?
A. Synthesis of RNA from a DNA template in the nucleus. [CORRECT]
B. Synthesis of protein from an mRNA template at the ribosome.
C. Replication of DNA during the S phase of the cell cycle.
D. Splicing of introns out of DNA.
Correct Answer: A
Comprehensive Exam | 120 Questions Page 1
,AMNH — Genetics and Genomics in Nursing Test Fall 2026/2027 | Correctly Answered
Rationale: Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, occurring in the nucleus. Translation is protein
synthesis from mRNA at the ribosome, DNA replication copies the entire genome, and splicing removes introns from
pre-mRNA (not DNA).
Q4: Which process BEST describes translation?
A. Synthesis of a protein from an mRNA template at the ribosome, using tRNA to deliver amino acids.
[CORRECT]
B. Synthesis of RNA from DNA.
C. Replication of DNA.
D. Transport of mRNA out of the nucleus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Translation is protein synthesis at the ribosome, where the mRNA codon sequence is read and tRNA delivers
amino acids in order. The other options describe transcription, replication, and mRNA transport — not translation.
Q5: Which statement CORRECTLY describes the structure of a gene?
A. A gene contains exons (coding regions) and introns (noncoding regions), with regulatory elements
such as promoters controlling its expression. [CORRECT]
B. A gene contains only exons and no introns.
C. A gene is always located on a single chromosome and never rearranged.
D. A gene is always expressed at the same level in every cell.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Genes consist of exons (coding regions) and introns (noncoding regions) and are regulated by promoters and
other regulatory elements. Introns are removed during RNA splicing. Genes can be located across regions and are not
expressed uniformly across all cell types.
Q6: In normal human karyotype, how many autosomes and sex chromosomes are present in a diploid somatic
cell?
A. 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes (46 total). [CORRECT]
B. 23 pairs of autosomes and no sex chromosomes.
C. 44 autosomes and 4 sex chromosomes.
D. 22 autosomes total and 2 sex chromosomes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes (46 total): 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes (XX or
XY). Other options miscount the pairs or omit the sex chromosomes.
Q7: A cell undergoes mitosis. Which statement is correct?
A. Mitosis produces two genetically identical diploid daughter cells from one parent cell. [CORRECT]
B. Mitosis produces four genetically diverse haploid daughter cells.
C. Mitosis occurs only in gametes.
D. Mitosis halves the chromosome number in the daughter cells.
Correct Answer: A
Comprehensive Exam | 120 Questions Page 2
,AMNH — Genetics and Genomics in Nursing Test Fall 2026/2027 | Correctly Answered
Rationale: Mitosis produces two genetically identical diploid daughter cells, maintaining the chromosome number. Meiosis
(not mitosis) produces four haploid gametes with genetic diversity, and meiosis (not mitosis) halves the chromosome
number.
Q8: A cell undergoes meiosis. Which statement is correct?
A. Meiosis produces four genetically diverse haploid gametes through two divisions, with crossing over
during prophase I. [CORRECT]
B. Meiosis produces two identical diploid daughter cells.
C. Meiosis occurs only in somatic cells.
D. Meiosis doubles the chromosome number in gametes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Meiosis produces four haploid gametes through two divisions, with crossing over during prophase I creating
genetic diversity. Mitosis produces identical diploid cells, meiosis occurs in germ cells (not somatic cells), and it halves —
not doubles — the chromosome number.
Q9: Nondisjunction during meiosis is the MOST likely cause of which condition?
A. Down syndrome (trisomy 21), due to an extra copy of chromosome 21. [CORRECT]
B. Cystic fibrosis, due to a point mutation in CFTR.
C. Sickle cell disease, due to a single nucleotide change.
D. Hemophilia A, due to an X-linked recessive mutation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nondisjunction during meiosis produces gametes with an extra or missing chromosome; trisomy 21 (Down
syndrome) results from an extra chromosome 21. Cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, and hemophilia A are single-gene
disorders caused by point mutations, not chromosomal nondisjunction.
Q10: Which base pair substitution correctly describes the DNA complementary pairing rule?
A. Adenine pairs with thymine (A–T), and cytosine pairs with guanine (C–G). [CORRECT]
B. Adenine pairs with cytosine, and guanine pairs with thymine.
C. Adenine pairs with uracil, and cytosine pairs with guanine.
D. Adenine pairs with adenine, and cytosine pairs with cytosine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In DNA, A pairs with T and C pairs with G via hydrogen bonds. A–U pairing occurs in RNA (where uracil
replaces thymine), and the other combinations violate complementary base pairing.
Q11: Which statement BEST describes a dominant inheritance pattern?
A. A dominant allele is expressed in the phenotype when present in one copy (heterozygous state).
[CORRECT]
B. A dominant allele requires two copies to be expressed.
C. A dominant allele is always more common in the population.
D. A dominant allele is always located on the X chromosome.
Correct Answer: A
Comprehensive Exam | 120 Questions Page 3
, AMNH — Genetics and Genomics in Nursing Test Fall 2026/2027 | Correctly Answered
Rationale: A dominant allele is phenotypically expressed in the heterozygous state (one copy sufficient). Recessive alleles
require two copies. Dominance is independent of population frequency and chromosomal location.
Q12: Two parents who are both carriers (Aa) for an autosomal recessive condition have a child. What is the
probability the child will be affected?
A. 25% (1 in 4), because the Punnett square Aa × Aa yields 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa. [CORRECT]
B. 50% (1 in 2), because carrier status confers risk.
C. 75% (3 in 4), because dominant alleles dominate.
D. 100%, because both parents are carriers.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aa × Aa produces 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa, giving a 1/4 (25%) probability of an affected child (aa), 50% carrier
probability (Aa), and 25% unaffected non-carrier (AA). The other probabilities misapply the Punnett square.
Q13: An unaffected father and an unaffected mother have a son with hemophilia A (X-linked recessive). What
is the MOST likely explanation?
A. The mother is a carrier (heterozygous X^H X^h), and the son inherited the X chromosome carrying
the recessive allele. [CORRECT]
B. The father is a carrier.
C. The son inherited two affected X chromosomes from the father.
D. The condition is autosomal dominant.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: X-linked recessive conditions affect males who inherit the affected X from a carrier mother (X^H X^h); fathers
pass Y to sons, so fathers cannot be carriers of X-linked recessive conditions, and sons do not inherit the father's X. The
condition is not autosomal dominant.
Q14: Which genotype represents a female carrier of an X-linked recessive condition?
A. X^H X^h (heterozygous female). [CORRECT]
B. X^h X^h (homozygous affected female).
C. X^H Y (unaffected male).
D. X^h Y (affected male).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A female carrier of an X-linked recessive condition is heterozygous (X^H X^h) — one normal allele and one
affected allele; she is phenotypically unaffected but can pass the affected allele to offspring. X^h X^h would be affected,
X^H Y is unaffected male, and X^h Y is affected male.
Q15: Which term describes the observable physical or biochemical characteristics of an organism resulting
from a genotype and environment?
A. Phenotype. [CORRECT]
B. Genotype.
C. Karyotype.
D. Haplotype.
Comprehensive Exam | 120 Questions Page 4
AMNH — Genetics and Genomics in Nursing Test
Fall 2026/2027 | Correctly Answered | Comprehensive 120-Question Exam
Aligned with AMNH Genetics in Nursing Education and ANA/ISONG Competencies
Exam Specifications: Exactly 120 questions across 7 sections | 30% recall, 50% application, 20% analysis | 75%
scenario-based, 25% direct recall. Each item includes four options (A–D), one correct answer marked [CORRECT],
and a detailed rationale with genetic principles, inheritance patterns, clinical implications, ethical considerations, and
nursing role standards.
Section 1: Foundations of Genetics and Genomics
Questions Q1–Q22 | Focus: DNA, RNA, Genes, Chromosomes, and Inheritance Patterns
Q1: A nurse is teaching a patient about the structure of DNA. Which statement by the patient indicates
CORRECT understanding?
A. DNA is a double helix composed of two strands of nucleotides connected by complementary base pairs
(A–T and C–G). [CORRECT]
B. DNA is a single-stranded molecule that contains the sugar ribose.
C. DNA contains the bases adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil.
D. DNA base pairs are connected by peptide bonds.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: DNA is a double helix of two nucleotide strands held together by complementary base pairs (adenine–thymine
and cytosine–guanine) joined by hydrogen bonds. Ribose and uracil are features of RNA, not DNA, and peptide bonds link
amino acids in proteins, not nucleotides in DNA.
Q2: Which RNA type carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosome for protein synthesis?
A. Messenger RNA (mRNA). [CORRECT]
B. Transfer RNA (tRNA).
C. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA).
D. MicroRNA (miRNA).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic message transcribed from DNA to the ribosome for translation into
protein. tRNA delivers amino acids, rRNA is part of the ribosome structure, and miRNA regulates gene expression rather
than carrying the coding message.
Q3: Which process BEST describes transcription?
A. Synthesis of RNA from a DNA template in the nucleus. [CORRECT]
B. Synthesis of protein from an mRNA template at the ribosome.
C. Replication of DNA during the S phase of the cell cycle.
D. Splicing of introns out of DNA.
Correct Answer: A
Comprehensive Exam | 120 Questions Page 1
,AMNH — Genetics and Genomics in Nursing Test Fall 2026/2027 | Correctly Answered
Rationale: Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, occurring in the nucleus. Translation is protein
synthesis from mRNA at the ribosome, DNA replication copies the entire genome, and splicing removes introns from
pre-mRNA (not DNA).
Q4: Which process BEST describes translation?
A. Synthesis of a protein from an mRNA template at the ribosome, using tRNA to deliver amino acids.
[CORRECT]
B. Synthesis of RNA from DNA.
C. Replication of DNA.
D. Transport of mRNA out of the nucleus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Translation is protein synthesis at the ribosome, where the mRNA codon sequence is read and tRNA delivers
amino acids in order. The other options describe transcription, replication, and mRNA transport — not translation.
Q5: Which statement CORRECTLY describes the structure of a gene?
A. A gene contains exons (coding regions) and introns (noncoding regions), with regulatory elements
such as promoters controlling its expression. [CORRECT]
B. A gene contains only exons and no introns.
C. A gene is always located on a single chromosome and never rearranged.
D. A gene is always expressed at the same level in every cell.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Genes consist of exons (coding regions) and introns (noncoding regions) and are regulated by promoters and
other regulatory elements. Introns are removed during RNA splicing. Genes can be located across regions and are not
expressed uniformly across all cell types.
Q6: In normal human karyotype, how many autosomes and sex chromosomes are present in a diploid somatic
cell?
A. 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes (46 total). [CORRECT]
B. 23 pairs of autosomes and no sex chromosomes.
C. 44 autosomes and 4 sex chromosomes.
D. 22 autosomes total and 2 sex chromosomes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes (46 total): 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes (XX or
XY). Other options miscount the pairs or omit the sex chromosomes.
Q7: A cell undergoes mitosis. Which statement is correct?
A. Mitosis produces two genetically identical diploid daughter cells from one parent cell. [CORRECT]
B. Mitosis produces four genetically diverse haploid daughter cells.
C. Mitosis occurs only in gametes.
D. Mitosis halves the chromosome number in the daughter cells.
Correct Answer: A
Comprehensive Exam | 120 Questions Page 2
,AMNH — Genetics and Genomics in Nursing Test Fall 2026/2027 | Correctly Answered
Rationale: Mitosis produces two genetically identical diploid daughter cells, maintaining the chromosome number. Meiosis
(not mitosis) produces four haploid gametes with genetic diversity, and meiosis (not mitosis) halves the chromosome
number.
Q8: A cell undergoes meiosis. Which statement is correct?
A. Meiosis produces four genetically diverse haploid gametes through two divisions, with crossing over
during prophase I. [CORRECT]
B. Meiosis produces two identical diploid daughter cells.
C. Meiosis occurs only in somatic cells.
D. Meiosis doubles the chromosome number in gametes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Meiosis produces four haploid gametes through two divisions, with crossing over during prophase I creating
genetic diversity. Mitosis produces identical diploid cells, meiosis occurs in germ cells (not somatic cells), and it halves —
not doubles — the chromosome number.
Q9: Nondisjunction during meiosis is the MOST likely cause of which condition?
A. Down syndrome (trisomy 21), due to an extra copy of chromosome 21. [CORRECT]
B. Cystic fibrosis, due to a point mutation in CFTR.
C. Sickle cell disease, due to a single nucleotide change.
D. Hemophilia A, due to an X-linked recessive mutation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nondisjunction during meiosis produces gametes with an extra or missing chromosome; trisomy 21 (Down
syndrome) results from an extra chromosome 21. Cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, and hemophilia A are single-gene
disorders caused by point mutations, not chromosomal nondisjunction.
Q10: Which base pair substitution correctly describes the DNA complementary pairing rule?
A. Adenine pairs with thymine (A–T), and cytosine pairs with guanine (C–G). [CORRECT]
B. Adenine pairs with cytosine, and guanine pairs with thymine.
C. Adenine pairs with uracil, and cytosine pairs with guanine.
D. Adenine pairs with adenine, and cytosine pairs with cytosine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In DNA, A pairs with T and C pairs with G via hydrogen bonds. A–U pairing occurs in RNA (where uracil
replaces thymine), and the other combinations violate complementary base pairing.
Q11: Which statement BEST describes a dominant inheritance pattern?
A. A dominant allele is expressed in the phenotype when present in one copy (heterozygous state).
[CORRECT]
B. A dominant allele requires two copies to be expressed.
C. A dominant allele is always more common in the population.
D. A dominant allele is always located on the X chromosome.
Correct Answer: A
Comprehensive Exam | 120 Questions Page 3
, AMNH — Genetics and Genomics in Nursing Test Fall 2026/2027 | Correctly Answered
Rationale: A dominant allele is phenotypically expressed in the heterozygous state (one copy sufficient). Recessive alleles
require two copies. Dominance is independent of population frequency and chromosomal location.
Q12: Two parents who are both carriers (Aa) for an autosomal recessive condition have a child. What is the
probability the child will be affected?
A. 25% (1 in 4), because the Punnett square Aa × Aa yields 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa. [CORRECT]
B. 50% (1 in 2), because carrier status confers risk.
C. 75% (3 in 4), because dominant alleles dominate.
D. 100%, because both parents are carriers.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aa × Aa produces 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa, giving a 1/4 (25%) probability of an affected child (aa), 50% carrier
probability (Aa), and 25% unaffected non-carrier (AA). The other probabilities misapply the Punnett square.
Q13: An unaffected father and an unaffected mother have a son with hemophilia A (X-linked recessive). What
is the MOST likely explanation?
A. The mother is a carrier (heterozygous X^H X^h), and the son inherited the X chromosome carrying
the recessive allele. [CORRECT]
B. The father is a carrier.
C. The son inherited two affected X chromosomes from the father.
D. The condition is autosomal dominant.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: X-linked recessive conditions affect males who inherit the affected X from a carrier mother (X^H X^h); fathers
pass Y to sons, so fathers cannot be carriers of X-linked recessive conditions, and sons do not inherit the father's X. The
condition is not autosomal dominant.
Q14: Which genotype represents a female carrier of an X-linked recessive condition?
A. X^H X^h (heterozygous female). [CORRECT]
B. X^h X^h (homozygous affected female).
C. X^H Y (unaffected male).
D. X^h Y (affected male).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A female carrier of an X-linked recessive condition is heterozygous (X^H X^h) — one normal allele and one
affected allele; she is phenotypically unaffected but can pass the affected allele to offspring. X^h X^h would be affected,
X^H Y is unaffected male, and X^h Y is affected male.
Q15: Which term describes the observable physical or biochemical characteristics of an organism resulting
from a genotype and environment?
A. Phenotype. [CORRECT]
B. Genotype.
C. Karyotype.
D. Haplotype.
Comprehensive Exam | 120 Questions Page 4
