NR222 EXAM 3 (NEWEST
2026/2027) HEALTH AND WELLNESS
TEST BANK – CHAMBERLAIN
UNIVERSITY | 350 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS & DETAILED RATIONALES
| ALREADY GRADED A+
Section 1: Health Promotion & Disease Prevention
1. A 45-year-old female patient asks the nurse about scheduling a
mammogram. The nurse explains that this is an example of which level of
prevention?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: B. Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early diagnosis and prompt treatment to
prevent disease progression. Screening tests like mammograms, Pap smears, and blood
pressure checks are classic examples. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease
before it occurs (e.g., vaccines). Tertiary prevention reduces impairment and
rehabilitates (e.g., cardiac rehab).
2. A patient with diabetes attends an education class on managing blood sugar
and preventing complications. This is an example of:
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Health protection
,Correct Answer: C. Tertiary prevention
Rationale: Tertiary prevention involves managing an existing disease to prevent
complications and disability. Diabetes education aims to manage the chronic condition
and prevent sequelae like neuropathy or retinopathy.
3. The nurse administers the Influenza vaccine to a healthy adult. This is an
example of:
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Health promotion
Correct Answer: A. Primary prevention
Rationale: Immunizations are a cornerstone of primary prevention because they protect
individuals from developing infectious diseases in the first place. Health promotion is a
broader concept enhancing well-being, but the specific act of vaccination is primary
prevention.
4. Which of the following is a primary goal of Healthy People 2030?
A. To eradicate all chronic diseases by 2030
B. To achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, and improve health and well-being
for all
C. To reduce the cost of healthcare by 50%
D. To mandate universal health insurance coverage
Correct Answer: B. To achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, and improve health
and well-being for all
Rationale: Healthy People 2030 sets data-driven national objectives to improve health
and well-being over the decade. Its overarching goals include attaining healthy,
thriving lives and well-being free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and
premature death, and achieving health equity, eliminating disparities, and improving
the health and well-being of all groups.
5. The nurse is educating a patient on risk factors for heart disease. Which of
the following is a non-modifiable risk factor?
A. Cigarette smoking
B. High cholesterol diet
C. Family history of heart disease
D. Sedentary lifestyle
,Correct Answer: C. Family history of heart disease
Rationale: Non-modifiable risk factors are those that cannot be changed, such as age,
gender, genetics, and family history. Smoking (A), diet (B), and activity level (D) are
modifiable lifestyle choices.
6. A nurse is teaching a community group about "Health Protection." Which
statement best describes this concept?
A. Encouraging individuals to eat a balanced diet
B. Organizing a 5K run to raise awareness
C. Mandating seatbelt use and ensuring clean water supplies
D. Providing rehabilitation after a stroke
Correct Answer: C. Mandating seatbelt use and ensuring clean water supplies
Rationale: Health protection involves organizational and community measures (often
regulatory or environmental) to protect people from disease and injury. Examples
include immunization mandates, water fluoridation, seatbelt laws, and sanitation.
Section 2: Nursing Process & Assessment
7. A nurse in a clinic is interviewing a client who will undergo diagnostic
testing. The nurse should ask about a client's potential allergies during which
phase of the nursing process?
A. Planning
B. Evaluation
C. Assessment
D. Implementation
Correct Answer: C. Assessment
Rationale: The assessment phase involves collecting comprehensive data pertinent to
the patient's health situation, including allergies, which is critical before any diagnostic
testing or intervention.
8. A nurse is completing a client's history and physical examination. Which of
the following information should the nurse consider subjective data?
A. Blood pressure
B. Cyanosis
, C. Nausea
D. Petechiae
Correct Answer: C. Nausea
Rationale: Subjective data are information perceived only by the affected person, such
as nausea, pain, or dizziness. Objective data are observable and measurable by the
nurse, such as blood pressure, cyanosis, and petechiae.
9. What is the primary purpose of the nursing process in health and wellness?
A. To provide a systematic framework for delivering individualized, evidence-based
care
B. To diagnose medical diseases
C. To prescribe medications
D. To perform surgical procedures
Correct Answer: A. To provide a systematic framework for delivering individualized,
evidence-based care
Rationale: The nursing process is a systematic, patient-centered framework that guides
nurses in delivering individualized, evidence-based care. It includes assessment,
diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.
10. What is the primary function of the assessment phase in the nursing
process?
A. Collecting comprehensive data pertinent to the patient's health situation
B. Developing a plan of care
C. Implementing interventions
D. Evaluating outcomes
Correct Answer: A. Collecting comprehensive data pertinent to the patient's health
situation
Rationale: The assessment phase is the first step of the nursing process, where the nurse
gathers both subjective and objective data to understand the patient's health status
and needs.
Section 3: Developmental Stages & Communication
11. Which developmental characteristic of school-aged clients contributes to
injury risk?
2026/2027) HEALTH AND WELLNESS
TEST BANK – CHAMBERLAIN
UNIVERSITY | 350 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS & DETAILED RATIONALES
| ALREADY GRADED A+
Section 1: Health Promotion & Disease Prevention
1. A 45-year-old female patient asks the nurse about scheduling a
mammogram. The nurse explains that this is an example of which level of
prevention?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: B. Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early diagnosis and prompt treatment to
prevent disease progression. Screening tests like mammograms, Pap smears, and blood
pressure checks are classic examples. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease
before it occurs (e.g., vaccines). Tertiary prevention reduces impairment and
rehabilitates (e.g., cardiac rehab).
2. A patient with diabetes attends an education class on managing blood sugar
and preventing complications. This is an example of:
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Health protection
,Correct Answer: C. Tertiary prevention
Rationale: Tertiary prevention involves managing an existing disease to prevent
complications and disability. Diabetes education aims to manage the chronic condition
and prevent sequelae like neuropathy or retinopathy.
3. The nurse administers the Influenza vaccine to a healthy adult. This is an
example of:
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Health promotion
Correct Answer: A. Primary prevention
Rationale: Immunizations are a cornerstone of primary prevention because they protect
individuals from developing infectious diseases in the first place. Health promotion is a
broader concept enhancing well-being, but the specific act of vaccination is primary
prevention.
4. Which of the following is a primary goal of Healthy People 2030?
A. To eradicate all chronic diseases by 2030
B. To achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, and improve health and well-being
for all
C. To reduce the cost of healthcare by 50%
D. To mandate universal health insurance coverage
Correct Answer: B. To achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, and improve health
and well-being for all
Rationale: Healthy People 2030 sets data-driven national objectives to improve health
and well-being over the decade. Its overarching goals include attaining healthy,
thriving lives and well-being free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and
premature death, and achieving health equity, eliminating disparities, and improving
the health and well-being of all groups.
5. The nurse is educating a patient on risk factors for heart disease. Which of
the following is a non-modifiable risk factor?
A. Cigarette smoking
B. High cholesterol diet
C. Family history of heart disease
D. Sedentary lifestyle
,Correct Answer: C. Family history of heart disease
Rationale: Non-modifiable risk factors are those that cannot be changed, such as age,
gender, genetics, and family history. Smoking (A), diet (B), and activity level (D) are
modifiable lifestyle choices.
6. A nurse is teaching a community group about "Health Protection." Which
statement best describes this concept?
A. Encouraging individuals to eat a balanced diet
B. Organizing a 5K run to raise awareness
C. Mandating seatbelt use and ensuring clean water supplies
D. Providing rehabilitation after a stroke
Correct Answer: C. Mandating seatbelt use and ensuring clean water supplies
Rationale: Health protection involves organizational and community measures (often
regulatory or environmental) to protect people from disease and injury. Examples
include immunization mandates, water fluoridation, seatbelt laws, and sanitation.
Section 2: Nursing Process & Assessment
7. A nurse in a clinic is interviewing a client who will undergo diagnostic
testing. The nurse should ask about a client's potential allergies during which
phase of the nursing process?
A. Planning
B. Evaluation
C. Assessment
D. Implementation
Correct Answer: C. Assessment
Rationale: The assessment phase involves collecting comprehensive data pertinent to
the patient's health situation, including allergies, which is critical before any diagnostic
testing or intervention.
8. A nurse is completing a client's history and physical examination. Which of
the following information should the nurse consider subjective data?
A. Blood pressure
B. Cyanosis
, C. Nausea
D. Petechiae
Correct Answer: C. Nausea
Rationale: Subjective data are information perceived only by the affected person, such
as nausea, pain, or dizziness. Objective data are observable and measurable by the
nurse, such as blood pressure, cyanosis, and petechiae.
9. What is the primary purpose of the nursing process in health and wellness?
A. To provide a systematic framework for delivering individualized, evidence-based
care
B. To diagnose medical diseases
C. To prescribe medications
D. To perform surgical procedures
Correct Answer: A. To provide a systematic framework for delivering individualized,
evidence-based care
Rationale: The nursing process is a systematic, patient-centered framework that guides
nurses in delivering individualized, evidence-based care. It includes assessment,
diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.
10. What is the primary function of the assessment phase in the nursing
process?
A. Collecting comprehensive data pertinent to the patient's health situation
B. Developing a plan of care
C. Implementing interventions
D. Evaluating outcomes
Correct Answer: A. Collecting comprehensive data pertinent to the patient's health
situation
Rationale: The assessment phase is the first step of the nursing process, where the nurse
gathers both subjective and objective data to understand the patient's health status
and needs.
Section 3: Developmental Stages & Communication
11. Which developmental characteristic of school-aged clients contributes to
injury risk?
