BIOD 152 Final Exam Essential Human Anatomy &
Physiology II Lab Portage Learning Actual Exam 2026/2027 –
Complete 100 Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
SECTION A: Nervous System – Organization, Brain & Cranial Nerves
(Q1–Q12)
Q1: The long, thin extension of a neuron that conducts electrical impulses AWAY from
the cell body toward the axon terminals is the:
A. Dendrite
B. Soma
C. Nissl body
D. Axon [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The axon carries action potentials away from the soma toward the axon
terminals for synaptic transmission. Dendrites carry signals toward the cell body, the
soma houses the nucleus, and Nissl bodies are rough ER involved in protein synthesis.
Q2: Which neuroglial cell type is responsible for producing myelin sheaths in the
PERIPHERAL nervous system?
A. Astrocytes
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Microglia
D. Schwann cells [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Schwann cells myelinate PNS axons (one cell per segment) and aid
peripheral nerve regeneration. Oligodendrocytes myelinate in the CNS, astrocytes
provide metabolic support and form the blood-brain barrier, and microglia are
phagocytes.
Q3: A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, in which the immune
system destroys myelin within the brain and spinal cord. Which glial cell type is being
damaged in her CNS?
A. Schwann cells
,B. Satellite cells
C. Ependymal cells
D. Oligodendrocytes [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oligodendrocytes form CNS myelin and can myelinate multiple axon
segments, so their destruction slows or blocks CNS conduction. Schwann cells are
restricted to the PNS, satellite cells support PNS ganglia, and ependymal cells line the
ventricles and produce/ circulate CSF.
Q4: During the depolarization phase of an action potential, which event occurs at the
neuron membrane?
A. Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open and sodium rushes into the cell [CORRECT]
B. Voltage-gated K⁺ channels open and potassium rushes into the cell
C. Na⁺/K⁺ pumps actively move sodium out of the cell
D. Ligand-gated chloride channels open and chloride enters the cell
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Depolarization occurs when voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open, allowing Na⁺
influx that drives the membrane potential toward +30 mV. K⁺ channels opening
produces repolarization, the pump restores resting gradients afterward, and chloride
entry would cause hyperpolarization.
Q5: Myelinated axons conduct action potentials rapidly because the impulse "jumps"
from node to node. This process is called:
A. Summation
B. Saltatory conduction [CORRECT]
C. Threshold propagation
D. Neurotransmitter reuptake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Saltatory conduction occurs as the action potential jumps between nodes of
Ranvier, where voltage-gated channels are concentrated, greatly increasing conduction
speed. Summation refers to graded potential integration at the trigger zone, and
reuptake is a synaptic recycling mechanism.
Q6: At the neuromuscular junction and most parasympathetic synapses, the
neurotransmitter released is:
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Acetylcholine [CORRECT]
D. Serotonin
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter at all neuromuscular junctions, all
preganglionic autonomic synapses, and parasympathetic postganglionic synapses.
Norepinephrine is released by most sympathetic postganglionic neurons, while
dopamine and serotonin act primarily within the CNS.
Q7: A college student arrives at the emergency department visibly intoxicated; he
cannot walk heel-to-toe, his movements are jerky and inaccurate, and he sways when
seated. Which brain region is MOST affected by the alcohol?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alcohol suppresses the cerebellum, which coordinates voluntary movement,
balance, posture, and motor learning — producing ataxia and dysmetria. The medulla
and pons control vital autonomic and respiratory functions, and the hypothalamus
governs homeostasis and hormone regulation.
Q8: A patient presents with disrupted body temperature, thirst, hunger, and circadian
rhythm regulation following a pituitary region tumor. Which brain structure has most
likely been damaged?
A. Corpus callosum
B. Hypothalamus [CORRECT]
C. Midbrain
D. Hippocampus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The hypothalamus is the autonomic control center regulating temperature,
thirst, hunger, circadian rhythms, and endocrine output via the pituitary. The corpus
callosum connects hemispheres, the midbrain handles visual/auditory reflexes, and the
hippocampus forms new memories.
Q9: Damage to the medulla oblongata is frequently fatal because this region contains:
A. The cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers that control heart rate, blood vessel
diameter, and breathing [CORRECT]
B. The primary motor cortex for voluntary movement
C. The thalamic relay nuclei for all sensory input
D. The choroid plexus that produces cerebrospinal fluid
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The medulla houses the vital autonomic centers for cardiovascular and
respiratory control as well as reflexes for swallowing, coughing, and vomiting. Voluntary
, motor control resides in the cortex, sensory relay occurs in the thalamus, and CSF is
produced mainly in the lateral ventricles' choroid plexus.
Q10: A patient cannot smile or wrinkle the right side of his face and has lost taste
sensation on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Which cranial nerve is impaired?
A. CN V (trigeminal)
B. CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
C. CN VII (facial) [CORRECT]
D. CN XII (hypoglossal)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The facial nerve (CN VII) supplies muscles of facial expression and taste
from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. CN V provides facial sensation and chewing,
CN IX carries taste from the posterior one-third, and CN XII controls tongue movement.
Q11: Which statement about the vagus nerve (CN X) is correct?
A. It carries motor fibers only to the tongue muscles
B. It is the longest cranial nerve and provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart,
lungs, and abdominal viscera [CORRECT]
C. It provides sensory innervation to the cornea of the eye
D. It innervates the muscles of chewing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The vagus nerve descends into the thorax and abdomen, carrying the
majority (~80–90%) of parasympathetic outflow to visceral organs. Tongue muscles are
CN XII, corneal sensation is CN V1, and muscles of chewing are CN V.
Q12: From most superficial to deepest, the correct order of the meninges surrounding
the brain and spinal cord is:
A. Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater
B. Arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
C. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
D. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The tough dura mater lies outermost, the web-like arachnoid mater (with CSF
in the subarachnoid space) lies in the middle, and the thin pia mater adheres directly to
neural tissue. Any other sequence reverses or swaps these layers.
Physiology II Lab Portage Learning Actual Exam 2026/2027 –
Complete 100 Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
SECTION A: Nervous System – Organization, Brain & Cranial Nerves
(Q1–Q12)
Q1: The long, thin extension of a neuron that conducts electrical impulses AWAY from
the cell body toward the axon terminals is the:
A. Dendrite
B. Soma
C. Nissl body
D. Axon [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The axon carries action potentials away from the soma toward the axon
terminals for synaptic transmission. Dendrites carry signals toward the cell body, the
soma houses the nucleus, and Nissl bodies are rough ER involved in protein synthesis.
Q2: Which neuroglial cell type is responsible for producing myelin sheaths in the
PERIPHERAL nervous system?
A. Astrocytes
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Microglia
D. Schwann cells [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Schwann cells myelinate PNS axons (one cell per segment) and aid
peripheral nerve regeneration. Oligodendrocytes myelinate in the CNS, astrocytes
provide metabolic support and form the blood-brain barrier, and microglia are
phagocytes.
Q3: A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, in which the immune
system destroys myelin within the brain and spinal cord. Which glial cell type is being
damaged in her CNS?
A. Schwann cells
,B. Satellite cells
C. Ependymal cells
D. Oligodendrocytes [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oligodendrocytes form CNS myelin and can myelinate multiple axon
segments, so their destruction slows or blocks CNS conduction. Schwann cells are
restricted to the PNS, satellite cells support PNS ganglia, and ependymal cells line the
ventricles and produce/ circulate CSF.
Q4: During the depolarization phase of an action potential, which event occurs at the
neuron membrane?
A. Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open and sodium rushes into the cell [CORRECT]
B. Voltage-gated K⁺ channels open and potassium rushes into the cell
C. Na⁺/K⁺ pumps actively move sodium out of the cell
D. Ligand-gated chloride channels open and chloride enters the cell
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Depolarization occurs when voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open, allowing Na⁺
influx that drives the membrane potential toward +30 mV. K⁺ channels opening
produces repolarization, the pump restores resting gradients afterward, and chloride
entry would cause hyperpolarization.
Q5: Myelinated axons conduct action potentials rapidly because the impulse "jumps"
from node to node. This process is called:
A. Summation
B. Saltatory conduction [CORRECT]
C. Threshold propagation
D. Neurotransmitter reuptake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Saltatory conduction occurs as the action potential jumps between nodes of
Ranvier, where voltage-gated channels are concentrated, greatly increasing conduction
speed. Summation refers to graded potential integration at the trigger zone, and
reuptake is a synaptic recycling mechanism.
Q6: At the neuromuscular junction and most parasympathetic synapses, the
neurotransmitter released is:
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Acetylcholine [CORRECT]
D. Serotonin
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter at all neuromuscular junctions, all
preganglionic autonomic synapses, and parasympathetic postganglionic synapses.
Norepinephrine is released by most sympathetic postganglionic neurons, while
dopamine and serotonin act primarily within the CNS.
Q7: A college student arrives at the emergency department visibly intoxicated; he
cannot walk heel-to-toe, his movements are jerky and inaccurate, and he sways when
seated. Which brain region is MOST affected by the alcohol?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alcohol suppresses the cerebellum, which coordinates voluntary movement,
balance, posture, and motor learning — producing ataxia and dysmetria. The medulla
and pons control vital autonomic and respiratory functions, and the hypothalamus
governs homeostasis and hormone regulation.
Q8: A patient presents with disrupted body temperature, thirst, hunger, and circadian
rhythm regulation following a pituitary region tumor. Which brain structure has most
likely been damaged?
A. Corpus callosum
B. Hypothalamus [CORRECT]
C. Midbrain
D. Hippocampus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The hypothalamus is the autonomic control center regulating temperature,
thirst, hunger, circadian rhythms, and endocrine output via the pituitary. The corpus
callosum connects hemispheres, the midbrain handles visual/auditory reflexes, and the
hippocampus forms new memories.
Q9: Damage to the medulla oblongata is frequently fatal because this region contains:
A. The cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers that control heart rate, blood vessel
diameter, and breathing [CORRECT]
B. The primary motor cortex for voluntary movement
C. The thalamic relay nuclei for all sensory input
D. The choroid plexus that produces cerebrospinal fluid
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The medulla houses the vital autonomic centers for cardiovascular and
respiratory control as well as reflexes for swallowing, coughing, and vomiting. Voluntary
, motor control resides in the cortex, sensory relay occurs in the thalamus, and CSF is
produced mainly in the lateral ventricles' choroid plexus.
Q10: A patient cannot smile or wrinkle the right side of his face and has lost taste
sensation on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Which cranial nerve is impaired?
A. CN V (trigeminal)
B. CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
C. CN VII (facial) [CORRECT]
D. CN XII (hypoglossal)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The facial nerve (CN VII) supplies muscles of facial expression and taste
from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. CN V provides facial sensation and chewing,
CN IX carries taste from the posterior one-third, and CN XII controls tongue movement.
Q11: Which statement about the vagus nerve (CN X) is correct?
A. It carries motor fibers only to the tongue muscles
B. It is the longest cranial nerve and provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart,
lungs, and abdominal viscera [CORRECT]
C. It provides sensory innervation to the cornea of the eye
D. It innervates the muscles of chewing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The vagus nerve descends into the thorax and abdomen, carrying the
majority (~80–90%) of parasympathetic outflow to visceral organs. Tongue muscles are
CN XII, corneal sensation is CN V1, and muscles of chewing are CN V.
Q12: From most superficial to deepest, the correct order of the meninges surrounding
the brain and spinal cord is:
A. Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater
B. Arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
C. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
D. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The tough dura mater lies outermost, the web-like arachnoid mater (with CSF
in the subarachnoid space) lies in the middle, and the thin pia mater adheres directly to
neural tissue. Any other sequence reverses or swaps these layers.
