NUR 202/ NUR202 Exam 3 – Maternal-Newborn Nursing
Review Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Complete Exam-Style
Questions with Detailed Rationales | Pass Guaranteed –
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Q1.A patient at 32 weeks gestation has a fundal height of 28 cm. Which condition is most likely?
A. Oligohydramnios or intrauterine growth restriction [CORRECT]
B. Polyhydramnios
C. Multiple gestation
D. Macrosomia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because fundal height should approximate gestational age in weeks; a
smaller measurement suggests oligohydramnios or IUGR.
---
Q2: A patient at 10 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting. Which intervention is
appropriate?
A. Eat small, frequent meals and avoid triggers. [CORRECT]
B. Skip meals to reduce nausea.
C. Take high-fat foods.
D. Restrict fluids.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because small, frequent bland meals and avoiding triggers reduce nausea in
early pregnancy.
---
Q3: Which immunization is recommended during pregnancy?
A. Tdap [CORRECT]
B. MMR
C. Varicella
D. Live influenza
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because Tdap is recommended during each pregnancy, preferably at 27-36
weeks, to protect the newborn.
---
,Q4: A patient at 28 weeks gestation is scheduled for a glucose tolerance test. Which condition is
being screened?
A. Gestational diabetes [CORRECT]
B. Preeclampsia
C. Anemia
D. Thyroid dysfunction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because GDM screening is universally recommended at 24-28 weeks
gestation with a glucose challenge test.
---
Q5: A patient at 36 weeks has a reactive nonstress test. Which finding indicates this result?
A. Two accelerations of 15 bpm for 15 seconds in 20 minutes [CORRECT]
B. No accelerations in 20 minutes
C. Variable decelerations
D. Late decelerations
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because a reactive NST requires at least two accelerations of 15 bpm lasting
15 seconds within 20 minutes.
---
Q6: A patient has a positive Group B strep culture at 36 weeks. Which intervention is
appropriate during labor?
A. Administer IV penicillin. [CORRECT]
B. Administer oral antibiotics now.
C. No intervention needed.
D. Perform a cesarean section.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because intrapartum IV penicillin prophylaxis prevents vertical transmission
of GBS to the newborn.
---
Q7: Which laboratory value requires immediate follow-up in a pregnant patient?
A. Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dL [CORRECT]
B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
C. WBC 9,000/mcL
D. Platelet count 250,000/mcL
, Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because hemoglobin below 10 g/dL indicates anemia, which increases risk of
preterm birth and low birth weight.
---
Q8: A patient at 26 weeks reports decreased fetal movement. Which action is priority?
A. Assess fetal heart tones. [CORRECT]
B. Reassure the patient.
C. Schedule an ultrasound for next week.
D. Encourage cold fluids.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because decreased fetal movement requires immediate assessment of fetal
well-being.
---
Q9: Which finding indicates a positive contraction stress test?
A. Late decelerations with 50% of contractions [CORRECT]
B. No decelerations
C. Early decelerations
D. Accelerations with fetal movement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because repetitive late decelerations during contractions indicate
uteroplacental insufficiency and a positive CST.
---
Q10: A patient at 41 weeks is scheduled for a biophysical profile. Which components are
assessed?
A. Fetal breathing, movement, tone, amniotic fluid volume, and NST [CORRECT]
B. Fetal heart rate only
C. Maternal vital signs only
D. Contraction frequency only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because the BPP combines ultrasound assessment of fetal breathing,
movement, tone, and amniotic fluid with NST.
---
Review Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Complete Exam-Style
Questions with Detailed Rationales | Pass Guaranteed –
A+ Graded
Q1.A patient at 32 weeks gestation has a fundal height of 28 cm. Which condition is most likely?
A. Oligohydramnios or intrauterine growth restriction [CORRECT]
B. Polyhydramnios
C. Multiple gestation
D. Macrosomia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because fundal height should approximate gestational age in weeks; a
smaller measurement suggests oligohydramnios or IUGR.
---
Q2: A patient at 10 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting. Which intervention is
appropriate?
A. Eat small, frequent meals and avoid triggers. [CORRECT]
B. Skip meals to reduce nausea.
C. Take high-fat foods.
D. Restrict fluids.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because small, frequent bland meals and avoiding triggers reduce nausea in
early pregnancy.
---
Q3: Which immunization is recommended during pregnancy?
A. Tdap [CORRECT]
B. MMR
C. Varicella
D. Live influenza
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because Tdap is recommended during each pregnancy, preferably at 27-36
weeks, to protect the newborn.
---
,Q4: A patient at 28 weeks gestation is scheduled for a glucose tolerance test. Which condition is
being screened?
A. Gestational diabetes [CORRECT]
B. Preeclampsia
C. Anemia
D. Thyroid dysfunction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because GDM screening is universally recommended at 24-28 weeks
gestation with a glucose challenge test.
---
Q5: A patient at 36 weeks has a reactive nonstress test. Which finding indicates this result?
A. Two accelerations of 15 bpm for 15 seconds in 20 minutes [CORRECT]
B. No accelerations in 20 minutes
C. Variable decelerations
D. Late decelerations
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because a reactive NST requires at least two accelerations of 15 bpm lasting
15 seconds within 20 minutes.
---
Q6: A patient has a positive Group B strep culture at 36 weeks. Which intervention is
appropriate during labor?
A. Administer IV penicillin. [CORRECT]
B. Administer oral antibiotics now.
C. No intervention needed.
D. Perform a cesarean section.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because intrapartum IV penicillin prophylaxis prevents vertical transmission
of GBS to the newborn.
---
Q7: Which laboratory value requires immediate follow-up in a pregnant patient?
A. Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dL [CORRECT]
B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
C. WBC 9,000/mcL
D. Platelet count 250,000/mcL
, Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because hemoglobin below 10 g/dL indicates anemia, which increases risk of
preterm birth and low birth weight.
---
Q8: A patient at 26 weeks reports decreased fetal movement. Which action is priority?
A. Assess fetal heart tones. [CORRECT]
B. Reassure the patient.
C. Schedule an ultrasound for next week.
D. Encourage cold fluids.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because decreased fetal movement requires immediate assessment of fetal
well-being.
---
Q9: Which finding indicates a positive contraction stress test?
A. Late decelerations with 50% of contractions [CORRECT]
B. No decelerations
C. Early decelerations
D. Accelerations with fetal movement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because repetitive late decelerations during contractions indicate
uteroplacental insufficiency and a positive CST.
---
Q10: A patient at 41 weeks is scheduled for a biophysical profile. Which components are
assessed?
A. Fetal breathing, movement, tone, amniotic fluid volume, and NST [CORRECT]
B. Fetal heart rate only
C. Maternal vital signs only
D. Contraction frequency only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because the BPP combines ultrasound assessment of fetal breathing,
movement, tone, and amniotic fluid with NST.
---
